Cisco

Cisco CCDP 300-320 Practice Exam Questions,300-320 pdf | 100% Free

Latest updates Cisco CCDP Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH v3.0) 300-320 exam questions and Answers! Free sharing 300-320 pdf online download, online exam Practice test, easy to improve skills! Get the full 300-320 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html (Total questions:600 Q&A). Year-round updates! guarantee the first attempt to pass the exam!

[PDF] Free Cisco 300-320 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CO03i-baRPjHkU54CVGIIfaTH2icYbXh

[PDF] Free Full Cisco pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CMo2G21nPLf7ZmI-3_hBpr4GDKRQWrGx

300-320 ARCH – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/arch-300-320.html

Latest effective Cisco 300-320 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
When designing data centers for multitenancy, which two benefits are provided by the implementation of VSAN and
zoning? (choose two)
A. VSAN provides a means of restricting visibility and connectivity among devices connected to a zone
B. VSANs have their own set of services and address space, which prevents an issue in one VSAN from affecting
others
C. Zones provide the ability to create many logical SAN fabrics on a single Cisco MDS 9100 family switch
D. VSANs and zones use separate fabrics
E. Zones allow an administrator to control which initiators can see which targets
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 2
While configuring a QoS policy, analysis of the switching infrastructure indicates that the switches support 1P3Q3T
egress queuing. Which option describes the egress queuing in the infrastructure?
A. The threshold configuration allows for inter-queue QoS by utilizing buffers.
B. The priority queue must contain real-time traffic and network management traffic.
C. The 1P3Q3T indicates one priority queue, three standard queues, and three thresholds.
D. The priority queue should use less than 20% of the total bandwidth.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which three authentication services are supported by Cisco NAC Appliance? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. Kerberos
D. TACACS+
E. local
F. SNMP
Correct Answer: ABC
Working with Existing Backend Authentication Servers When working with existing backend authentication servers,
Cisco supports the following authentication protocol types:
Kerberos
RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)
Windows NT (NTLM Auth Server)
LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/nac/appliance/configuration_guide/47/cam/ 47cam-book/m_auth.html


QUESTION 4
Design for data center where you don\\’t have to dedicate one switch per rack?
A. Top of rack
B. End of row
C. Blade Switch
D. Middle of row
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Cisco FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are two
advantages of using Cisco FabricPath technology? (Choose two)
A. Cisco FabricPath relies on OSPF to support Layer 2 forwarding between switches, which allows load balancing
between redundant paths.
B. Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning.
C. Loop mitigation is provided by the TTL field in the frame.
D. Cisco FabricPath is IETF-standard and is not used with Cisco products.
E. Cisco FabricPath technology is supported in all Cisco platforms and can replace legacy Ethernet in all campus
networks.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 6
Which four primary attributes define a WAN service? (Choose four.)
A. bandwidth
B. bursting capacity
C. memory
D. CPU
E. QoS classes and policies
F. latency
G. multicast support
Correct Answer: ABEG


QUESTION 7
Which command can you enter to inject BGP routes into an IGP?
A. redistribute bgp
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute static subnet
D. default-information originate
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q8An engineer must apply IP addressing to five new WAN sites and choses the new subnets pictured. The previous
administrator applied the addressing at Headquarters. Whitch option is the minimum summary range to cover the
existing WAN sites while also allowing for three additional WAN sites of the same size, for future growth?
A. 10.0.60.0/18
B. 10.0.64.0/21
C. 10.0.64.0/17
D. 10.0.0.0/17
E. 10.0.64.0/18
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 9
What QoS technology allows traffic to pass even though it has exceeded the bandwidth limit but will be queued later?
A. Shaping
B. Policing
C. Weighted Fair Queuing
D. Low Latency Queuing
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
An engineer is redesigning the infrastructure for a campus environment. The engineer must maximize the use of the
links between the core and distribution layers. By which two methods can this usage be maximized? (Choose two.)
A. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use RPVSTP+
B. Design with multiple unequal-cost links between the core and distribution layers.
C. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use an IGP
D. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use HSRP.
E. Design with multiple equal-cost links between the core and distribution layers.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 11
An CSPF router should have a maximum of how many adjacent neighbors?
A. 80
B. 60
C. 100
D. 50
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag and Drop question with regards to Cisco Application-Centric Infrastructure ACI .
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q12 lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q12-1

QUESTION 13
What is the preferred protocol for a router that is running an IPv4 and IPv6 dual stack configuration?
A. IPX
B. microsoft Netbios
C. IPv6
D. IPv4
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
Which one of these could you implement to sustain a large DDoS attack?
A. Stateful firewall
B. uRPF
C. Connections limits and timeouts
D. Access-lists
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
Which statement about Fibre Channel communications is correct?
A. N_Port to N_Port connections use logical node connection points.
B. Flow control is only provided by QoS.
C. It must be implemented in an arbitrated loop.
D. Communication methods are similar to those of an Ethernet bus.
Correct Answer: A
Fibre Channel supports a logical node connection point between node ports (N_ports). This is similar to TCP and UDP
sockets.


QUESTION 16
What location are security policies enforced in ACI?
A. End Point
B. Spine
C. Leaf
D. APIC
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 17
L2 extention through IP in the data center (MAC-in-IP)
A. fiberpath
B. TRILL
C. OTV
D. Vxlan
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 18
What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?
A. It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
B. Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
C. There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
D. SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. multicast routing uses RPF.
B. multicast routing is connectionless.
C. In multicast routing, the source of a packet is known.
D. When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not rebuilt, but use the original path
E. Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the only difference being that it has a a group of receivers rather
than just one destination
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 20
Which statement about the ToR design model is true?
A. It can shorten cable runs and simplify rack connectivity.
B. Each ToR switch must be individually managed.
C. Multiple ToR switches can be interconnected to provide a loop-free spanning-tree infrastructure.
D. It can connect servers that are located in separate racks.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 21
Which Cisco feature can be run on a Cisco router that terminates a WAN connection, to gather and provide WAN circuit
information that helps switchover to dynamically back up the WAN circuit?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. IP SLA
C. passive interface
D. traffic shaping
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
A company needs to configure a new firewall and have only one public IP address to use in this firewall. The engineer
need to configure the firewall with NAT to handle inbound traffic to the mail server in addition to internet outbound
traffic.lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q22Which options could he use ? (Choose Two)
A. Static NAT for inbound traffic on port 25
B. Dynamic NAT for outbound traffic
C. Static NAT for outbound traffic on port 25
D. Dynamic NAT for inbound traffic
E. NAT overload for outbound traffic
F. NAT overload for inboud traffic on port 25
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 23
Which two key components are related to one firewall per ISP design option for e-commerce? (Choose two.)
A. It is a common approach to single-homing.
B. This approach is commonly used in large sites.
C. Any failure on an edge router results in a loss of session.
D. It has one NAT to two ISP-assigned blocks.
E. It is difficult to set up and administer.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 24
Which technology should a network designer combine with VSS to ensure a loop free topology with optimal
convergence time?
A. Portfast
B. UplinkFast
C. RPVST +
D. Mulitchassis EtherChannel
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
A Network administrator want to increase the security level in the core layer and want to confirm that the users that have
their default GW on an interface in the core switch can access specific networks and can\\’t access the remaining
networks.
Which feature can help him to achieve this?
A. vlan access control list
B. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html
C. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html
D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 26
A company have single ASA hardware box and they need to separate company departments in way that they can apply
different rules on them, ACL, NAT, and so on… Which mode is needed?
A. routed mode
B. transparent mode
C. multiple context mode
D. active failover mode
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
` the rule on the left to match the appropriate activity on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q27Correct Answer: lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q27-1

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q28Correct Answer: lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q28-1Enable specifically at the network edge >STP Manually prune unused VLANs >Trunks Use specifically on fiber-optic
interconnections that link switches >UDLD Ensure that an individual link failure will not result in an STP failure
>Etherchannel Always use a number of links that is a power of 2 (2, 4, 8) to optimize the load balancing of traffic> VSS


QUESTION 29
A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network. Which option
should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task?
A. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint.
B. Configure QoS in all links.
C. Configure a new NET address.
D. Configure the links as point-to-point.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 30
An engineer is designing a multi cluster bgp network, each cluster has 2 RRs and 4 RR clients which 2 options must be
considered?
A. Clients from all clusters should peer with all RRs
B. All route reflectors should be non client peers and topology partially meshed
C. All RRs must be non client peers in a fully meshed topology
D. Clients must not peer with IBGP speakers outside the client router
E. Clients should peer with at least one other client outside it\\’s cluster
Correct Answer: DE
Route reflectors must still be fully IBGP meshed with nonclients. Therefore, route reflectors reduce meshing within
clusters, but all mesh links outside the cluster must be maintained on the route reflector. The route reflector clients get
information from IBGP speakers outside the cluster via the route reflector.


QUESTION 31
What is an advantage of using the VPC feature in data center environment ?
A. All available uplinks bandwidth is used.
B. FHRP is not required
C. A single IP is used for management of both devices
D. The two switches form a single control plane
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 32
What command essentially turns on auto summarization for EIGRP?
A. area 0 range 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0.0
B. router eigrp 1
C. ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0
D. ip summary-address 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0
E. eigrp stub
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 33
An engineer has an implemented a QOS architecture that requires a signaling protocol to tell routers which flows of
packets require special treatment. Which two mechanisms are important to establish and maintaining QOS
architecture? (choose two)
A. classification
B. tagging
C. packet scheduling
D. admission control
E. resource reservation
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 34
A customer with a single Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance wants to separate multiple segments of the e-commerce
network to allow for different security policies. What firewall technology accommodates these design requirements?
A. Routed mode
B. Virtual-context
C. Transparent mode
D. Virtual private network
E. private VLANs
F. admission control
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 35
OTV to interconnect three data centers and what should there be in each data center
A. VTEP
B. vxlan ?
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 36
A customer requires resiliency and availability for applications hosted in the data center. What two technologies meet
this requirement? (Choose two)
A. SLB
B. LTM
C. GLBP
D. GTM
E. HSRP
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 37
Which option prevents the dropping of asymmetrically routed packets in active/active failover paired firewalls?
A. Nothing can be done to prevent this from happening.
B. Configure different policies on both firewalls.
C. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to the same asymmetric routing group.
D. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to a different asymmetric routing group.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 38
Which two options regarding the Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tag are true? (Choose two)
A. It is assigned by the Cisco ISE to the user or endpoint session upon login
B. Best practice dictates it should be statically created on the switch
C. It is removed by the Cisco ISE before reaching the endpoint.
D. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a guest group allowing access to minimal services
E. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a security group for common services such as DNS and
DHCP
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 39
In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks
B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported
C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks
Correct Answer: A

We offer more ways to make it easier for everyone to learn, and YouTube is the best tool in the video.Follow channels: https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCXg-xz6fddo6wo1Or9eHdIQ/videos get more useful exam content.

Latest Cisco 300-320 YouTube videos:

This is the latest update released by the Cisco CCDP Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH v3.0) 300-320 exam questions and answers,and we share 40 exam questions and answers for free to help you improve your skills! You can download 300-320 pdf or watch the 300-320 YouTube video tutorial online! Get the full 300-320 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html (Total questions:600 Q&A). Help you pass the exam quickly!

[PDF] Free Cisco 300-320 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CO03i-baRPjHkU54CVGIIfaTH2icYbXh

[PDF] Free Full Cisco pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CMo2G21nPLf7ZmI-3_hBpr4GDKRQWrGx

Lead4pass Promo Code 12% Off

lead4pass 300-320 dumps

We share more practical and effective exam dumps (Cisco,Microsoft,Oracle,Citrix,Comptia…) The latest citrix cce-v 1y0-401 exam dumps help you improve your skills

Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 Practice Exam Questions,300-209 pdf | 100% Free

Latest updates Cisco CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions (SIMOS v1.0) 300-209 exam questions and Answers! Free sharing 300-209 pdf online download, online exam Practice test, easy to improve skills! Get the full 300-209 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-209.html (Total questions:393 Q&A). Year-round updates! guarantee the first attempt to pass the exam!

[PDF] Free Cisco 300-209 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1cqN80_ksLXlLmH-XmP-JP8ejIScAfH8G

[PDF] Free Full Cisco pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CMo2G21nPLf7ZmI-3_hBpr4GDKRQWrGx

300-209 SIMOS – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/specialist-simos.html

Latest effective Cisco 300-209 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which header is used when a data plane IPsec packet is created?
A. IKEv1
B. AES
C. SHA
D. ESP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE?
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. DES
D. RSA
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which two operational advantages does GetVPN offer over site-to-site IPsec tunnel in a private MPLS-based core
network? (Choose two.)
A. Key servers perform encryption and decryption of all the data in the network, which allows for tight security policies.
B. Traffic uses one VRF to encrypt data and a different on to decrypt data, which allows for multicast traffic isolation.
C. GETVPN is tunnel-less, which allows any group member to perform decryption and routing around network failures.
D. Packets carry original source and destination IP addresses, which allows for optimal routing of encrypted traffic.
E. Group Domain of Interpretation protocol allows for homomorphic encryption, which allows group members to operate
on messages without decrypting them
Correct Answer: CD
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/group-encrypted-transport-
vpn/deployment_guide_c07_554713.html


QUESTION 4
An engineer must set up DMPN Phase2 with EIGRP to ensure spoke-to-spoke communication. Which two EIGRP
features must be disabled?
A. stub routing
B. split horizon
C. route redistribution
D. auto-summary
E. next-hop self
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 5
Which command clears all Cisco AnyConnect VPN sessions on a Cisco ASA?
A. vpn-sessiondb logoff anyconnect
B. vpn-sessiondb logoff webvpn
C. clear crypto isakmp sa
D. vpn-sessiondb logoff l2l
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Which two option, are benefits of AES compared to 3DES? (Choose two.)
A. switches encryption keys every 32 GB of data transfer
B. faster encryption
C. shorter encryption keys
D. longer encryption block length
E. repeating encryption keys
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 7
The Cisco AnyConnect client is unable to download an updated user profile from the ASA headend using IKEv2. What
is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. User profile updates are not allowed with IKEv2.
B. IKEv2 is not enabled on the group policy.
C. A new profile must be created so that the adaptive security appliance can push it to the client on the next connection
attempt.
D. Client Services is not enabled on the adaptive security appliance.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
A company has acquired a competitor whose network infrastructure uses only IPv6. An engineer must configure VPN
access sourced from the new company. Which remote access VPN solution must be used?
A. GET VPN
B. Any Connect
C. EzVPN
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
What does DART stand for?
A. Device and report tool
B. Diagnostic Anyconnect Reporting Tool
C. Delivery and Reporting Tool
D. Diagnostics and Reporting Tool
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which option describes the purpose of the shared argument in the DMVPN interface command tunnel protection IPsec
profile ProfileName shared?
A. shares a single profile between multiple tunnel interfaces
B. allows multiple authentication types to be used on the tunnel interface
C. shares a single profile between a tunnel interface and a crypto map
D. shares a single profile between IKEv1 and IKEv2
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Using the Next Generation Encryption technologies, which is the minimum acceptable encryption level to protect
sensitive information?
A. AES 92 bits
B. AES 128 bits
C. AES 256 bits
D. AES 512 bits
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel?lead4pass 300-209 exam question - q12A. incorrect PSK
B. crypto access list mismatch
C. incorrect tunnel group
D. crypto policy mismatch
E. incorrect certificate
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
You have been using pre-shared keys for IKE authentication on your VPN.
Your network has grown rapidly, and now you need to create VPNs with numerous IPsec peers.
How can you enable scaling to numerous IPsec peers?
A. Migrate to external CA-based digital certificate authentication.
B. Migrate to a load-balancing server.
C. Migrate to a shared license server.
D. Migrate from IPsec to SSL VPN client extended authentication.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 14
Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN?
A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPN
B. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN
C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN
D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
A company has a Flex VPN solution for remote access and one of their Cisco any Connect remote clients is having
trouble connecting property. Which command verifies that packets are being encrypted and decrypted?
A. show crypto session active
B. show crypto ikev2 stats
C. show crypto ikev1 sa
D. show crypto ikev2 sa
E. show crypto session detail
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 16
Which option is one of the difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN?
A. flexvpn uses ikev2 and dmvpn can use ikev1 or ikev2
B. dmvpn can use ikev1 and ikev2 where flexvpn only uses ikev1
C. flexvpn can use ikev1 and ikev2 where dmvpn uses only ikev2
D. dmvp uses ikev1 and flexvpn use ikev3
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
An IOS SSL VPN is configured to forward TCP ports. A remote user cannot access the corporate FTP site with a Web
browser. What is a possible reason for the failure?
A. The user\\’s FTP application is not supported.
B. The user is connecting to an IOS VPN gateway configured in Thin Client Mode.
C. The user is connecting to an IOS VPN gateway configured in Tunnel Mode.
D. The user\\’s operating system is not supported.
Correct Answer: B
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ssl-vpn-client/70664-IOSthinclient.html
Thin-Client SSL VPN (Port Forwarding)
A remote client must download a small, Java-based applet for secure access of TCP applications that use static port
numbers. UDP is not supported. Examples include access to POP3, SMTP, IMAP, SSH, and Telnet. The user needs
local
administrative privileges because changes are made to files on the local machine. This method of SSL VPN does not
work with applications that use dynamic port assignments, for example, several FTP applications.


QUESTION 18
Which protocol must be enabled on the inside interface to use cluster encryption in SSL VPN load balancing?
A. TLS
B. DTLS
C. IKEv2
D. ISAKMP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 19
An engineer is configuring SSL VPN for remote access. A real-time application that is sensitive to packet delays will be
used. Which feature should the engineer confirm is enabled to avoid latency and bandwidth problems associated with
SSL connections?
A. DTLS
B. DPD
C. SVC
D. IKEv2
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 20
A temporary worker must use clientless SSL VPN with an SSH plug-in, in order to access the console of an internal
corporate server, the projects.xyz.com server. For security reasons, the network security auditor insists that the
temporary
user is restricted to the one internal corporate server, 10.0.4.18.
You are the network engineer who is responsible for the network access of the temporary user.
What should you do to restrict SSH access to the one projects.xyz.com server?
A. Configure access-list temp_user_acl extended permit TCP any host 10.0.4.18 eq 22.
B. Configure access-list temp_user_acl standard permit host 10.0.4.18 eq 22.
C. Configure access-list temp_acl webtype permit url ssh://10.0.4.18.
D. Configure a plug-in SSH bookmark for host 10.0.4.18, and disable network browsing on the clientless SSL VPN
portal of the temporary worker.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. Which VPN solution does this configuration represent?lead4pass 300-209 exam question - q21

A. Cisco AnyConnect
B. IPsec
C. L2TP
D. SSL VPN
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
Which two GDOI encryption keys are used within a GET VPN network? (Choose two.)
A. key encryption key
B. group encryption key
C. user encryption key
D. traffic encryption key
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 23
Which Cisco adaptive security appliance command can be used to view the count of all active VPN sessions?
A. show vpn-sessiondb summary
B. show crypto ikev1 sa
C. show vpn-sessiondb ratio encryption
D. show iskamp sa detail
E. show crypto protocol statistics all
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial configuration shown, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
crypto ipsec transform-set MY_TRANSFORM esp-aes 128 esp-sha-hmac! crypto ipsec profile MYPROFILE
set transform-set MY_TRANSFORM ! interface Tunnel0
ip unnumbered GigabitEthernet1/1
tunnel source GigabitEthernet1/1
tunnel destination 192.168.2.200
tunnel mode ipsec ipv4
tunnel protection ipsec profile MYPROFILE! ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel0
A. The tunnel will use the routing protocol configured for GigabitEthemet 1/1 for all tunnel communication with the peer.
B. The IP route statement to reach the remote network behind the DMVPN peer is incorrect, it should be ip route
192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 tunnel 0.
C. This is an example of a static point-to-point VTI tunnel.
D. The tunnel will use esp-sha-hmac encryption in ESP tunnel mode.
E. The tunnel will use 128-bit AES encryption in ESP tunnel mode.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 25
Which option describes the purpose of the command show derived-config interface virtual-access 1?
A. It verifies that the virtual access interface is cloned correctly with per-user attributes.
B. It verifies that the virtual template created the tunnel interface.
C. It verifies that the virtual access interface is of type Ethernet.
D. It verifies that the virtual access interface is used to create the tunnel interface.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 26
What URL do you use to download a packet capture file in a format which can be used by a packet analyzer?
A. ftp:///capture//
B. https:////
C. https:///admin/capture//pcap
D. https:////pcap
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Which two statements about the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN solution are true? (Choose two.)
A. When a client connects to the Cisco ASA WebVPN portal and tries to access HTTP resources through the URL bar,
the client uses the local DNS to perform FQDN resolution.
B. The rewriter enable command under the global webvpn configuration enables the rewriter functionality because that
feature is disabled by default.
C. A Cisco ASA with an AnyConnect Premium Peers license can simultaneously allow Clientless SSL VPN sessions
and AnyConnect client sessions.
D. Content rewriter functionality in the Clientless SSL VPN portal is not supported on Apple mobile devices.
E. Clientless SSLVPN provides Layer 3 connectivity into the secured network.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 28
Which feature is enabled by the use of NHRP in a DMVPN network?
A. host routing with Reverse Route Injection
B. BGP multiaccess
C. host to NBMA resolution
D. EIGRP redistribution
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 29
Which Cisco IOS VPN feature simplifies IPsec VPN configuration and design by using on- demand virtual access
interfaces that are cloned from a virtual template configuration?
A. GET VPN
B. dynamic VTI
C. static VTI
D. GRE tunnels
E. GRE over IPsec tunnels
F. DMVPN
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 30
Which command clears all crypto configuration from a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance?
A. clear configure crypto
B. clear configure crypto ipsec
C. clear crypto map
D. clear crypto ikev2 sa
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
Which VPN feature allows remote access clients to print documents to local network printers?
A. Reverse Route Injection
B. split tunneling
C. loopback addressing
D. dynamic virtual tunnels
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 32
Which technology can rate-limit the number of tunnels on a DMVPN hub when system utilization is above a specified
percentage?
A. NHRP Event Publisher
B. interface state control
C. CAC
D. NHRP Authentication
E. ip nhrp connect
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 33
When initiating a new SSL or TLS session, the client receives the server SSL certificate and validates it. After validating
the server certificate, what does the client use the certificate for?
A. The client and server use the server public key to encrypt the SSL session data.
B. The server creates a separate session key and sends it to the client. The client decrypts the session key by using the
server public key.
C. The client and server switch to a DH key exchange to establish a session key.
D. The client generates a random session key, encrypts it with the server public key, and then sends it to the server.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 34
Which three actions can be applied to a traffic class within a type inspect policy map? (Choose three.)
A. drop
B. priority
C. log
D. pass
E. inspect
F. reset
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is running DMVPN with EIGRP, when the administrator looks at the routing
table on spoken 1 it displays a route to the hub only.
Which command is missing on the hub router, which includes spoke 2 and spoke 3 in the spoke 1 routing table?lead4pass 300-209 exam question - q35

A. no inverse arp
B. neighbor (ip address)
C. no ip split-horizon egrp 1
D. redistribute static
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 36
A company\\’s remote locations connect to data centers via MPLS.
A new request requires that unicast traffic that exist the remote location be encrypted.
Which no tunneled technology can be used to satisfy this requirement?
A. SSL
B. GET VPN
C. DMVPN
D. EzVPN
Correct Answer: B

 


QUESTION 37
Which type of communication in a FlexVPN implementation uses an NHRP shortcut?
A. spoke to hub
B. spoke to spoke
C. hub to spoke
D. hub to hub
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 38
Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken when Cisco AnyConnect cannot establish an IKEv2 connection, while
SSL works fine? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the primary protocol on the client machine is set to IPsec.
B. Verify that AnyConnect is enabled on the correct interface.
C. Verify that the IKEv2 protocol is enabled on the group policy.
D. Verify that ASDM and AnyConnect are not using the same port.
E. Verify that SSL and IKEv2 certificates are not referencing the same trustpoint.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. The IKEv2 tunnel between Router1 and Router2 is failing during session establishment. Which
action will allow the session to establish correctly?lead4pass 300-209 exam question - q39

A. The address command on Router2 must be narrowed down to a /32 mask.
B. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be switched.
C. The pre-shared key must be altered to use only lowercase letters.
D. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be the same.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
Which three parameters are specified in the isakmp (IKEv1) policy? (Choose three.)
A. the hashing algorithm
B. the authentication method
C. the lifetime
D. the session key
E. the transform-set
F. the peer
Correct Answer: ABC

We offer more ways to make it easier for everyone to learn, and YouTube is the best tool in the video. Follow channels: https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCXg-xz6fddo6wo1Or9eHdIQ/videos get more useful exam content.

Latest Cisco 300-209 YouTube videos:

This is the latest update released by the Cisco CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions (SIMOS v1.0) 300-209 exam questions and answers, and we share 40 exam questions and answers for free to help you improve your skills! You can download 300-209 pdf or watch the 300-209 YouTube video tutorial online! Get the full 300-209 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-209.html (Total questions:393 Q&A). Help you pass the exam quickly!

[PDF] Free Cisco 300-209 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1cqN80_ksLXlLmH-XmP-JP8ejIScAfH8G

[PDF] Free Full Cisco pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CMo2G21nPLf7ZmI-3_hBpr4GDKRQWrGx

Lead4pass Promo Code 12% Off

lead4pass 300-209 dumps

We share more practical and effective exam dumps
(Cisco,Microsoft,Oracle,Citrix,Comptia…) The latest citrix CCP-M 1y0-371 exam dumps help you improve your skills

[2018 New Cisco Dumps] High Quality Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 Dumps Exam Materials Update Youtube (Q1-Q20)

2018 latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps pdf training resources and study guides download free try from lead4pass. “Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0” is the name of Cisco CCNA Collaboration https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High quality Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps vce youtube demo update free shared 210-065 CIVND – Cisco. 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 210-065 exam.

Google drive latest Cisco 210-065 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRODRqVmVBYWxuc0k

Google drive latest Cisco 210-060 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSHJTTV9NMjQ0dmc

The best Cisco 300-115 dumps exam youtube free demo, latest Cisco 300-115 dumps pdf practice files. Download latest useful Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps vce software online to have a free try.
210-065 dumps

High Quality Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is unable to call the Cisco IP Video Phone. Assuming that the calling search space has been configured correctly, which of the these can cause this issue?
A. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered to a Cisco Telepresence Video Communication Server.
B. A multipoint control unit is required in order for the call to work.
C. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered as a SIP endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. H.323 is not supported.
D. URI dialing has not been configured on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 Profile 1 > CallSetupMode must be configured as a gateway since Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a gatekeeper functionality.
F. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is not registered as a SIP endpoint on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 needs to be registered as both SIP and H.323.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
An engineer is connecting a VISCA cable. What is the purpose of this cable?
A. to connect camera to codec
B. to connect camera to monitor
C. to connect camera to touch panel
D. to connect camera to network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An engineer encounters video quality issues with an endpoint. To capture ongoing call statistics from the CLI, which command should the engineer use?
A. xStatus Call Feature Display
B. xStatus OutgoingVideoChannel Netstat 1
C. xStatus Diagnostics
D. xCommand Diagnose
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An engineer must ensure that a user can create content playlists for Digital Signs and Show and Share. Which Cisco Digital Media Suite component allows playlists to be created?
A. Cisco DMD
B. Cisco DMM
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco MXE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two tools can be used to extract traces from a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? 210-065 dumps (Choose two.)
A. RTMT
B. TraceRT
C. Wireshark
D. CLI
E. Syslog
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
A manager requires multiparty video meetings with presentation capability. Which endpoint meets the requirement assuming there is no centralized bridge?
A. Cisco SX20
B. Cisco DX650
C. Cisco 7800
D. Cisco Jabber
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
Refer to the Exhibits, in order to create a scheduled or ad-hoc multipoint conference, which two tolls can be used? (Choose two)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
An administrator is troubleshooting an endpoint whose SIP Registration Status shows “Failed: 403 Forbidden” and must obtain information about the cause of the failure. To which two menu locations must an engineer navigate? (Choose two.)
A. Endpoint > Log Files > messages.log
B. Endpoint > Diagnostics > Log Files > all.log
C. VCS > Maintenance > Diagnostics > Incident Reporting > View
D. VCS > Status > logs > Configuration Log
E. VCS > Status > logs > Event Log
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 9
Which type of lighting is recommended for Cisco TelePresence immersive solutions?
A. point
B. reflective
C. direct
D. indirect
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A Cisco EX60 is connected to the network, but users cannot make calls and the device is unregistered. The voice engineer configured the device on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two options are causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. SIP URI is not configured correctly.
B. H.323 parameters are not configured correctly.
C. IP address is in a different subnet.
D. No user is associated to a device.
E. SIP proxy is not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which desktop endpoint support 802.3af PoE?
A. DX70
B. DX80
C. DX90
D. DX650
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An engineer is backing up a VCS configuration. Which two methods can be used? (Choose two.)
A. FTP
B. SFTP
C. SSH
D. web administration
E. local
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
An engineer sees a video camera icon on the Cisco IP phone screen status line. Which meaning of this icon is true?
A. The Cisco VT camera is connected to the PC, and the PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone.
B. The Cisco IP phone has web access.
C. The Cisco IP phone is receiving a video call.
D. The Cisco IP phone is configured with video capabilities.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A company just acquired a Cisco MCU 5300 for multi videoconferencing. The networking engineer must create a conference. To which tab does the engineer go to create a conference? 210-065 dumps
A. Endpoints
B. Conferences
C. Network
D. Settings
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
In this tutorial the instruction `Go to Conferences > Move participants’ means click the Conferences link on the menu bar and then click the Move participants tab.

QUESTION 15
Which option is the Cisco recommended minimum viewing distance for a 52″ monitor installed in a video conferencing room?
A. 1.5 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 2.5 m
D. 2.0 m
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which effect of the CLI set audio aec enable command on the immersive Cisco Telepresence system is true?
A. Echo cancellation is enabled.
B. Call economy quality feature is enabled.
C. Noise cancellation is enabled.
D. AEC audio codec is enabled.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
What is the process for resetting a Cisco VCS control appliance back to initial default configuration?
A. Push down and hold the reset button on the back of the VCS appliance for 10 seconds and power cycle the device.
B. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the defaults-reset command.
C. Log into the GUI interface as administrator, choose System Settings, select Restore, select Factory Reset.
D. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the factory-reset command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which two Cisco TelePresence endpoints support hosting embedded multisite conferences? (Choose two.)
A. sx20
B. MX800
C. DX70
D. DX80
E. Jabber Video for Cisco TelePresence
Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:
For reference, the below endpoints support Multisite:
MX200/300 G2
MX700/800
SX20/80

QUESTION 19
Which option is the Cisco recommended layout if cascading is being used?
A. Enhanced Continuous Presence
B. Full Participant
C. Continuous Presence
D. Active Speaker
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
When an administrator schedules a conference, which three devices are part of the process? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint
B. Cisco Prime Collaboration Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco Communications Manager
E. MCU appliance
F. Cisco TelePresence Content Server
Correct Answer: BDF

Google drive latest Cisco 210-065 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRODRqVmVBYWxuc0k

Google drive latest Cisco 210-060 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSHJTTV9NMjQ0dmc

The best and most updated latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps exam practice materials in PDF format free download from lead4pass. Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 210-065 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA Collaboration. 100% pass guarantee.

New Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/gzVachAxjbc

[2018 New Cisco Dumps] Latest Cisco 600-509 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers Update Youtube Free Shared

Latest Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist 600-509 dumps exam practice questions and answers download free try from lead4pass. New Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist 600-509 dumps vce youtube demo update free shared. “Integrating Business Applications with Network Programmability” is the name of Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist https://www.lead4pass.com/600-509.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. The best and most updated latest Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist 600-509 dumps pdf training resources free update, pass Cisco 600-509 exam test easily at first try.

Download free latest Cisco 600-509 dumps pdf from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRcS0yb052bTRfb1U

Download free latest Cisco 600-510 dumps pdf from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRTHVMUURyeHBvQUU

Best Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist 600-509 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which two benefits are achieved through database sharding within the Cisco APIC cluster? (Choose two.)
A. active-standby high availability
B. scalability
C. compression
D. reliability
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which overlay protocol does Cisco AVS for vSphere use to allow the ACI fabric to extend over an existing network infrastructure?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. NVGRE
D. VXLAN
E. OTV
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which three main problems was a host overlay system designed to address? (Choose three.)
A. workload mobility
B. simplified and automated workload provisioning
C. multitenancy at scale
D. integrate physical and virtual networking
E. increase visibility to traffic flows
F. better root cause analysis capabilities
G. consolidate IT infrastructure teams
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
Which two benefits of ACI help improve the time required to deploy an application? (Choose two.)
A. enabling software developers to create development environments similar to production
B. eliminating the need for expensive Layer 4 to Layer 7 service appliances
C. eliminating IP addressing from software stacks
D. evolving the IT model from manual workflows to an application model that automates deployment,
operations, and visibility
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which two ACI features assist with application service-level assurance? (Choose two.)
A. tenant health scores
B. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service integration
C. Cisco APIC database sharding
D. fabric health scores
E. QoS
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which ACI construct provides the policy-based definition that comprises the communication, performance, and security needs of an application?
A. service profile
B. endpoint group
C. application service profile
D. application network profile
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
The use of the Cisco Bi-Di 40G transceiver provides cost effective transition to a 40G ACI fabric through transmission over which cabling plant?
A. Category 6a copper
B. single pair of OM3/OM4 MM fiber
C. single pair of SM fiber
D. Twinax copper
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which method does ACI fabric dynamic load balancing use to provide optimal balancing of flows across the fabric? 600-509 dumps
A. Flows are dynamically allocated according to congestion at the leaf.
B. Flows are dynamically allocated according to hop-by-hop congestion in the fabric.
C. Flows are dynamically allocated according to link BER.
D. Flows are distributed in per packet round-robin.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which four benefits are provided by ACI services to achieve business and technical objectives? (Choose four.)
A. Identify and address technical and operational readiness to effectively deploy this architecture to support your target use cases.
B. Simplify operations through integration at the infrastructure, systems, and management levels.
C. Protect capital and operational investments while gaining a simple transition path from existing environments to architecture based on Cisco ACI.
D. Allow centralized application-based policy automation, programmability, and visibility into physical and virtual networks from a single point of management.
E. Allow centralized management and control over all Cisco platforms and non Cisco platforms.
F. Simplify and reduce the number of applications for better DevOps support.
G. Ability to design, install, and manage access/aggregation/core networks.
H. Emphasize technical objectives to best meet business requirements.
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 10
Which three options are major components of the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)
A. spine switches
B. application network profiles
C. leaf switches
D. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E. OpenFlow controller
F. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service devices
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
Which four options are important functions offered by the Cisco APIC? (Choose four.)
A. fault and event management
B. hypervisor, storage, and computing management
C. Layer 3 through 5 services integration
D. statistical collection and analysis
E. performance management
F. nonblocking data plane
G. 1.5:1 oversubscribed ports
H. BGP and OSPF routing protocol support
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 12
Before you design an ACI fabric, it is important to understand existing application interactions. If you do not understand them entirely, which approach can you use?
A. Design a classic routing configuration in which everybody can talk to anybody as the equivalent to a contract called “anyany” that all EPGs provide and consume.
B. Design around the Cisco ACI whitelist model using the common tenant, where, by default, two EPGs can communicate to each other in the absence of a contract.
C. Map each EPG to familiar constructs such as VLANs that provide segmentation and will apply policy application interactions.
D. Leverage advanced orchestration tools like Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud or Cisco UCS Director to document existing application interactions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You want to satisfy the business, risk, and customer requirements. Which option is a consideration when you select and design an ACI fabric?
A. the requirement for meaningful services (such as traffic load balancing, segmentation, filtering, traffic insertion, and monitoring) for workloads provided by virtual Layer 4 to Layer 7 servers
B. virtual machine mobility because moving from one server to another one would have to occur on the same leaf so that ACI can preserve virtual machine visibility and policy enforcement
C. the breakdown of virtual versus physical workloads because virtual workloads are treated preferentially in ACI
D. the requirement for a central point of management, but no centralized control plane
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What are two key concepts that Cisco onePK addresses in Software-Defined networks? (Choose two.)
A. network programmability
B. separation of control and data planes
C. device/feature abstraction
D. OpenFlow
E. BGP-LS
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Which four components should be considered when gathering business requirements for a customer project? 600-509 dumps (Choose four.)
A. alignment to corporate goals
B. compliance regulations
C. development team location
D. commitments to customers
E. supplier capabilities
F. business unit providing the developers
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 16
In the Agile software development process, which two principles align with customer communications? (Choose two.)
A. Software releases are held until quality gates are met.
B. Co-location of business-focused individuals and developers for face-to-face conversation is best.
C. Key developers should have a proxy that intercepts rapidly changing requirements.
D. Customer requirements are fully collected before development ensues.
E. Changing requirements are welcome, even late in development.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 17
Which role represents the voice of the customer in the Scrum software development framework?
A. development team
B. Scrum master
C. project wing
D. product owner
E. customer centre
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which three options are common programmability and automation requirements for the research academia, cloud service providers, and enterprise segments? (Choose three.)
A. network slicing
B. scaling multitenancy
C. resource automation and orchestration
D. harvesting network intelligence
E. service delivery
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 19
Which technology is vendor-specific?
A. Cisco onePK
B. OpenFlow
C. BGP-LS
D. OpenStack
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
If the client has equipment from multiple vendors in their network, which statement about the technologies that can be used is true?
A. Cisco onePK is a good candidate because it is vendor agnostic.
B. Cisco onePK is vendor-specific and therefore cannot control all the equipment.
C. OpenFlow is not a good candidate because it is vendor-specific.
D. OpenFlow is not a good candidate because it is only for Layer 2 switches.
Correct Answer: B

Why Select Lead4pass?

Lead4pass is the best IT learning material provider. Other brands appeared early, the Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist 600-509 dumps exam questions are not the latest and it is very expensive. Lead4pass provide the newest and cheapest questions and answers. Lead4pass is the correct choice for IT learning materials, help you pass your exam easily.

The Following Are Some Reviews From Our Customers:


You can click here to have a review about us: https://www.resellerratings.com/store/lead4pass

High quality Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist 600-509 dumps exam practice files and study guides in PDF format free download from lead4pass. Latest Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist https://www.lead4pass.com/600-509.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 600-509 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist. 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 600-509 exam.

Useful Cisco Business Application Engineer Specialist 600-509 dumps vce youtube:

[2018 New Cisco Dumps] Right Choice Cisco 400-201 Dumps Exam Materials Free Youtube Demo

What is the best Cisco 400-201 dumps exam materias? Prepare for Cisco 400-201 exam test with high quality Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps exam practice questions and answers download free try. The best and most updated Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo free shared. “CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.1” is the name of Cisco CCIE Service Provider https://www.lead4pass.com/400-201.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Useful latest Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free download, pass Cisco 400-201 exam quickly and easily at first attempt.

Latest Cisco 400-201 dumps pdf materials free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRanpER0JENHVtUGM

Latest Cisco 400-101 dumps pdf materials free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRQ1BCdmJuZzdZN0U
400-201 dumps

Best Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps exam questions and answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode environment? (Choose three.)
A. updating the pseudonode LSP
B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information
C. creating the pseudonode LSP
D. flooding LSPs over the LAN
E. election of the pseudonode
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. Anengineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp discovery targeted-hello accept command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The 2.6.6.6/32 prefix is flapping when PE1 is flapping. Which action can fix this issue?
A. On PE2, allow only redistribution from BGP into IS-IS; on PE3, allow only redistribution from IS-OS into BGP.
B. Configure all IS-IS instances as level-1-only.
C. Configure a sham link between PE2 and PE3.
D. On PE2 and PE3, reconfigure redistribute BGP into IS-IS using the metric-type external parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
When a traceroute is performed from a PC behind R2, the next hop on R1 for IPv4 is 10.0.1.2, and for IPv6 it is 2001:DB8:2:2. What is causing thus behavior? 400-201 dumps
A. GigabitEthernet2/1 has a Level 1-only adjacency. This causes it to be the preferred path for the IPv6 packets.
B. When SPF ran on R2, it calculated two equal paths to R1. It was a coincidence that than the packets choose different paths.
C. Multitopology is enabled on R2, which causes the IPv6 packets to use a different path than the IPv4 packets.
D. 2001:DB8:2::2 is on a Gigabit Ethernet interface. Because its speed is higher than Fast Ethernet, the IS-IS metric is preferred.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which MPLS TE component keeps track of the flooding and admission control?
A. MPLS TE priorities
B. RSVP
C. link attributes
D. link manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which is the main goal of BGPsec regards to improve BGP security?
A. Reduces risk of improper route propagation from unauthorized AS numbers
B. Configures BGP route verification by storing routes in a database used to validate AS numbers
C. Adds encryption to route propagation outside the iBGP AS
D. Increases legitimacy and authenticity of BGP advertisements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two models are used in MPLS TE bandwidth constraints? (Choose two)
A. mdm
B. rdm
C. bdm
D. mam
E. tern
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller node? (Choose two)
A. Neutron Layer 3 agent
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Identity Service
D. Neutron Layer 2 agent
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What are the two benefits of graceful restart? (Choose two)
A. Graceful restart allows session information recovery without disruption to the network.
B. A node can perform a graceful restart to help a neighbor recover its state. The label bindings are kept on state information, which helps the failed node recover faster and does not affect the current forward traffic.
C. Graceful restart allows a node to recover state from its neighbor when there is no RP or before the device undergoes SSO.
D. Graceful restart does not allow session information recovery.
E. During a graceful restart, the router removes any stale prefixes after a timer for stale entries expires
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about the BGP next-hop attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs do not modify the next-hop attribute.
B. By default, iBGP sessions change the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers to self address.
C. By default, the next-hop attribute is not changed when a prefix is reflected by the route reflector
D. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs change the next-hop attribute to peer address.
E. By default, iBGP sessions preserve the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that ensures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? 400-201 dumps (Choose two.)
A. IP FRR
B. NSR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. TE FRR
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
The Attribute field within the IS-IS LSP header contains which of the following flags? (Choose four)
A. IS-Type
B. Overload (LSPDBOL)
C. Pseudonode (PN)
D. Attached (ATT)
E. Fragment (Frag-Nr)
F. Partition (P)
Correct Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 13
One ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS, you want to redesign the network to improve performance and convergence, which are correct ways? (Choose two)
A. Bidirectional forwarding failure detection
B. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP…….exp backoff timers C. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
C. IP Event Dampending
D. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The prefix 10.1.1.64/28 should be advertised to the PE router, yet the prefix is not being received by the PE. Which configuration should be applied on CE in order to fix this issue?
A. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP seq 1 permit 10.1.1.64/28
B. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.128 mask 255.255.255.128
C. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP permit 10.1.1.64/28
D. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which Cisco IOS XR Virtualization technology provides full isolation between virtualized routing instances for extra control plane resources?
A. HVR
B. SVR
C. SDR
D. DRP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which router is the DIS?
A. router-22
B. router-44
C. router-33 and router-44
D. router-11
E. router-33
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which is one difference between H-VPLS and VPLS? 400-201 dumps
A. VPLS is a point-to-point Layer-2 services and H-VPLS is a multipoint Layer-2 services.
B. H-VPLS reduces signaling overhead and packet replication requirementsfor the provider edge.
C. VPLS improve scalability concerns identified on H-VPLS implementation.
D. H-VPLS connects using also other Layer-2 encapsulation such as PPP and VPLS connects using
Ethernet encapsulation only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to deploy a solution that allows for 200 DS1 s and 100 DS0s that are multiplexed to a single interface on a Cisco 7600 Series Router. Which interface type satisfies this requirement?
A. Channelized T3/E3 (DS0)
B. Channelized OC-12/STM-4
C. OC-12/STM-4
D. OC-48c/STM-16
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
In an MPLS VPN environment, the QoS marking over the MPLS backbone must be different from the one that is received from the customer. The forwarding on the egress PE is based on the marking that is set by the ingress PE. Which null label and QoS mode can achieve this?
A. MPLS explicit null with pipe mode
B. MPLS implicit null with short pipe mode
C. MPLS implicit null with uniform mode
D. MPLS explicit null with uniform mode
E. MPLS explicit null with short pipe mode
F. MPLS implicit null with pipe mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
B. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Correct Answer: B

Newest helpful Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps exam practice files in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best useful latest Cisco CCIE Service Provider https://www.lead4pass.com/400-201.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 400-201 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCIE Service Provider, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

High quality Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/pwJQ6ekenyo

[2018 New Cisco Dumps] Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Dumps Exam Materials And Youtube Demo Update

Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. Get the best Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps exam practice questions and answers free download from lead4pass. “Implementing Cisco Network Security” is the name of Cisco CCNA Security https://www.lead4pass.com/210-260.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High quality Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps pdf training resources and study guides update free try, pass Cisco 210-260 exam test easily.

Download free latest Cisco 210-260 dumps pdf materials: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRcnI0SE83bHBvQ1k

Download free latest Cisco 210-060 dumps pdf materials: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSHJTTV9NMjQ0dmc

210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? (Choose two.)
A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules.
B. They cannot track connections.
C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.
D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature.
E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
How can you detect a false negative on an IPS?
A. View the alert on the IPS.
B. Review the IPS log.
C. Review the IPS console.
D. Use a third-party system to perform penetration testing.
E. Use a third-party to audit the next-generation firewall rules.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
B. TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
C. TACACS supports per-command authorization.
D. TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
E. TACACS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
F. TACACS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments? 210-260 dumps
A. It forwards email requests to an external signature engine.
B. It scans inbound email messages for known bad URLs.
C. It sends the traffic through a file policy.
D. It sends an alert to the administrator to verify suspicious email messages.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which statement about the given configuration is true?
A. The single-connection command causes the device to establish one connection for all TACACS transactions.
B. The single-connection command causes the device to process one TACACS request and then move to the next server.
C. The timeout command causes the device to move to the next server after 20 seconds of TACACS inactivity.
D. The router communicates with the NAS on the default port, TCP 1645.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 7
What can the SMTP preprocessor in FirePOWER normalize?
A. It can extract and decode email attachments in client to server traffic.
B. It can look up the email sender.
C. It compares known threats to the email sender.
D. It can forward the SMTP traffic to an email filter server.
E. It uses the Traffic Anomaly Detector.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
While troubleshooting site-to-site VPN, you issued the show crypto ipsec sa command. What does the given output show?
A. IPSec Phase 2 is established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
B. ISAKMP security associations are established between 10.1.1.5 and 10.1.1.1.
C. IKE version 2 security associations are established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
D. IPSec Phase 2 is down due to a mismatch between encrypted and decrypted packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDoS attack?
A. botnet
B. Trojan horse
C. virus
D. adware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In the router ospf 200 command, what does the value 200 stand for? 210-260 dumps
A. process ID
B. area ID
C. administrative distance value
D. ABR ID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is example of social engineering
A. Gaining access to a building through an unlocked door.
B. something about inserting a random flash drive.
C. gaining access to server room by posing as IT
D. Watching other user put in username and password (something around there)
Correct Answer: C

The best and most updated Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps exam training materials in PDF format, Cisco CCNA Security https://www.lead4pass.com/210-260.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 210-260 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA Security.

Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/seDmEyXcd3w

[2017 New Cisco Dumps] Update New Cisco 700-505 Dumps PDF Training Resources And VCE Youtube Free Demo

Update new Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-505 dumps pdf training resources and vce youtube free demo. High quality Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-505 dumps exam questions and answers free download from lead4pass. “SMB Specialization for Account Managers” is the name of Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge https://www.lead4pass.com/700-505.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Latest Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-505 dumps pdf practice materials and study guides, pass Cisco 700-505 exam test easily at first try.

Download free latest Cisco 700-070 dumps pdf training resources from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSHp4NlVtYW9vcGM

Download free latest Cisco 700-172 dumps pdf training resources from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSXU4YkVVUnJLS00

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge
Exam Name: SMB Specialization for Account Managers
Exam Code: 700-505
Total Questions: 50 Q&As
700-505 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which Cisco Partner Sales Tool provides a single searchable location for sales guidance and technical details to help differentiate Cisco solutions from the competition?
A. Cisco Commerce Workspace
B. Competitive Portal
C. Quick Product Reference Guide
D. Cisco Discovery Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which three statements about the Cisco ISR G2 security solutions are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco ISR G2 security should only be deployed after a customer has rejected deploying Cisco ASA security.
B. Web Security Connected is delivered as a service module.
C. Software upgrades and reboots are needed to install security licenses.
D. Web Security Connected integrates with the Cisco ASA firewalls and the Cisco AnyConnect secure mobility client.
E. Cisco IPS network module can be added to the Cisco 2900 and 3900 Series routers.
F. Software licenses for security services include; IPsec/SSL VPN, Firewall, IPS.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 3
Which two options are Cisco Telepresence multipurpose endpoint solutions for small and midsizebusiness? 700-505 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Third-party videoconferencing endpoint
B. Cisco MX200
C. Cisco VCS
D. Cisco Profile 42
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Which three options are benefits that a customer can achieve by implementing a Cisco borderless wiredwireless solution?
(Choose three.)
A. Automatically provision SSIDs based on VLAN ID
B. Allow more than 50 users per access point to stream video content.
C. Determine the number of devices and users on the network.
D. Enforce policies to manage network access and keep data secure.
E. Network scalability to meet increased traffic and growing number of devices.
F. Prevent non-authorized devices from seeing SSIDs.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco series switch is stackable and provides solid baseline switching?
A. 200 Series
B. 300 Series
C. 500 Series
D. 100 Series
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which incentive program gives an up-front discount to partners with registered opportunities?
A. Cisco Partner Incentive Program
B. Value Incentive Program
C. Solution Incentive Program
D. Opportunity Incentive Program
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two products belong to the Cisco Data Center portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C220
B. Cisco WLC 2504
C. Cisco SVC 320
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which two IT solution characteristics do small and midsize business customers prefer? (Choose two)
A. simple devices that work well together right out of the box
B. enterprise-grade functionality; complexity is not a concern
C. flexibility; devices can be added easily in the future
D. solutions that will increase employee morale
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
700-505 dumps Which Cisco Catalyst model should you recommend to a customer that is considered a bargain buyer?
A. 2960
B. 3750
C. 300
D. 1900
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three options are customer benefits of implementing a Cisco Borderless switching solution? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree
B. Smart Install
C. AutoSmartPorts
D. Smart CallHome
E. Solar-powered
F. Uninterruptable power
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 11
Which option is the back-end security ecosystem that detects threat activity, researches and analyzes those threats: and provides real-time updates along with best practices to allow organizations to be informed and protected?
A. Threat Operation Center
B. Secure Infrastructure Optimization
C. Monitor Analysis Response System
D. Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
In which two ways can Cisco solutions help resolve customer business challenges? (Choose two.)
A. by supporting BYOD and increased mobility
B. by providing a multisystem infrastructure that must be monitored and maintained by the IT staff
C. by providing improved collaboration and communication tools
D. by providing a complex borderless solution
Correct Answer: AC

Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/700-505.html dumps exam practice questions and answers free update, the best and most Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-505 dumps pdf training materials free download.

Latest Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-505 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/brfTxjHT0kI

[2017 New Cisco Dumps] Latest Cisco 100-105 Dumps PDF Questions And VCE Youtube Demo Free Update

Lead4pass latest Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf practice files and dumps vce youtube free demo. High quality Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps exam questions and answers free try. https://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html dumps pdf training resources. Get the best Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf training materials and study guides, pass Cisco 100-105 exam test easily.

Latest Cisco 100-105 dumps pdf questions and answers free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VReEJYRlhNVjdGeVU

Latest Cisco 300-160 dumps pdf questions and answers free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRaThBc3h5VDkxZEE

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Some routers have been configured with default routes. 100-105 dumps What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
100-105 dumps
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 8
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?
A. half-duplex operation
B. broadcast storms
C. network segmentation
D. multicasting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two.)
A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface.
B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface.
C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets.
D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic.
E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access list.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?
A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19
B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0
C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0
D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0
E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0
F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?
A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address
B. allows remote management of the switch
C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE

Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html dumps exam questions and answers free update.

Watch the video to learn more: https://youtu.be/trVHfqmuVvg

[2017 New Cisco Dumps] High Quality 300-101 Dumps Cisco Exam Questions And Answers Update Youtube Free Demo

Prepare for Cisco 300-101 exam with high quality Cisco CCDP 300-101 dumps exam questions and answers free try. Latest Cisco CCDP 300-101 dumps pdf resources and dumps vce youtube update free demo. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-101.html dumps exam practice files. Get the best Cisco CCDP 300-101 dumps pdf training materials and study guides free download from lead4pass, pass Cisco 300-101 exam test easily.

High quality Cisco 300-101 dumps pdf questions and answers free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRWFlVNGtTZjU1MVE

High quality Cisco 210-060 dumps pdf questions and answers free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSHJTTV9NMjQ0dmc

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Exam Code: 300-101
Total Questions: 424 Q&As
300-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
300-101 dumps Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node? 300-101 dumps
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections?
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
How is authentication handled with OSPFv3?
A. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by SHA-1 authentication.
B. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by MD5 authentication
C. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv6 IPsec
D. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv4 IPsec
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. 300-101 dumps The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Voice over IP (VoIP). The system sends UDP datagrams containing the voice data between communicating hosts. When areas of the network become busy, some of the datagrams arrive at their destination out of order. What happens when this occurs?
A. UDP will send an ICMP Information request message to the source host.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order in which they arrive.
C. UDP will drop the datagrams that arrive out of order.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data into the …
Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-101.html dumps pdf study guides and materials free update.

Watch the video to learn more: https://youtu.be/TY2YbXB2Y-I

[2017 New Cisco Dumps] Update Free Cisco 200-105 Dumps Latest PDF Training Resources And VCE Youtube Demo

Update free latest Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps pdf training resources and dumps vce youtube demo. Get the best Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps exam practice files and study guides free try from lead4pass. https://www.lead4pass.com/200-105.html dumps pdf practice materials. High quality Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps exam questions and answers free download, pass Cisco 200-105 exam test easily at the first time.

Download free latest Cisco 200-105 dumps pdf training resources: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRS3BsT2duT3pTSlU

Download free latest Cisco 200-310 dumps pdf training resources: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VROXBqSzZWaThrVlE

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As

QUESTION 1
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command? 200-105 dumps
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?
A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? 200-105 dumps (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-105 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 9
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
A. To identify applications causing congestion
B. To authorize user network access
C. To report and alert link up / down instances
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 11
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? 200-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 12
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-105.html dumps pdf practice questions and answers free update.

Watch the video to learn more: https://youtu.be/hZ-2ufhcg6s