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QUESTION 1

A wireless engineer must implement a corporate wireless network for a large company in the most efficient way
possible. The wireless network must support 32 VLANs for 300 employees in different departments. Which solution
must the engineer choose?

A. Configure a second WLC to support half of the APs in the deployment.
B. Configure one single SSID and implement Cisco ISE for VLAN assignment according to different user roles.
C. Configure different AP groups to support different VLANs, so that all of the WLANs can be broadcast on both radios.
D. Configure 16 WLANs to be broadcast on the 2.4-GHz band and 16 WLANs to be broadcast on the 5.0- GHz band.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q1

 

QUESTION 2

After receiving an alert about a rogue AP, a network engineer logs into Cisco Prime Infrastructure and looks at the floor
map where the AP that detected the rogue is located. The map is synchronized with a mobility services engine that
determines that the rogue device is actually inside the campus. The engineer determines that the rogue is a security
threat and decides to stop if from broadcasting inside the enterprise wireless network. What is the fastest way to disable the rogue?

A. Go to the location where the rogue device is indicated to be and disable the power.
B. Create an SSID similar to the rogue to disable clients from connecting to it.
C. Update the status of the rogue in Cisco Prime Infrastructure to contained.
D. Classify the rogue as malicious in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.

 

QUESTION 3

An engineer is implementing profiling for BYOD devices using Cisco ISE. When using a distributed model, which
persona must the engineer configure with the profiling service?

A. Policy Services Node
B. Device Admin Node
C. Monitor Node
D. Primary Admin Node

 

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q4

An engineer deployed a Cisco WLC using local EAP. Users who are configured for EAP-PEAP cannot connect to the
network. Based on the local EAP debug controller provided, why is the client unable to connect?

A. The client is falling to accept certificate.
B. The Cisco WLC is configured for the incorrect date.
C. The user is using invalid credentials.

 

QUESTION 5

An engineer must track guest traffic flow using the WLAN infrastructure. Which Cisco CMX feature must be configured
and used to accomplish this tracking?

A. analytics
B. connect and engage
C. presence
D. detect and locate.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q5

 

QUESTION 6

Which two configurations are applied on the WLC to enable multicast, check multicast stream subscriptions, and stream content only to subscribed clients? (Choose two)

A. Enable IGMP snooping
B. Set the IGMP timeout to 180 seconds
C. Enable broadcast forwarding
D. Enable 802.3x flow control mode.
E. Set the AP multicast to 238.255.255.255

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/81671-multicast-wlc-lap.html

 

QUESTION 7

An engineer just added anew MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure and wants to synchronize the MSE with the Cisco 5520
WLC, which is located behind a firewall in a DMZ. It is noticed that NMSP messages are failing between the two
devices. Which traffic must be allowed on the firewall to ensure that the MSE and WLC can communicate using NMSP?

A. TCP 1613
B. UDP 16113
C. TCP 16113
D. UDP 1613

hnps:\\’/vvw\vxJsco.com\\’c/en;us\\’support;docsAvJreless\\’5500-series-wJreless-controllers/113344- cuwn-ppm html
https:\\’/mrncciewxom/2014/09/25/what-is-nmsp/ https:\\’/mvwxiscoxomx/en\\’us\\’support/docs\\’wireless\\’mo

 

QUESTION 8

The IT manager is asking the wireless team to get a report for all guest user associations during the past two weeks. In
which two formats can Cisco Prime save this report? (Choose two.)

A. CSV
B. PDF
C. XLS
D. DOC
E. plain text

cisco 300-430 exam questions q8

 

QUESTION 9

What is the default NMSP echo interval between Cisco MSE and a Wireless LAN Controller?

A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds

 

QUESTION 10

What must be configured on the Global Configuration page of the WLC for an access point to use 802.1x to authenticate to the wired infrastructure?

A. supplicant credentials
B. RADIUS shared secret
C. local access point credentials
D. TACACS server IP address.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q10

 

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q11

A network administrator deploys the DHCP profiler service in two ISE servers: 10.3.10.101 and 10.3.10.102. All BYOD
devices connecting to WLAN on VLAN63 have been incorrectly profiled and are assigned as unknown profiled
endpoints. Which action efficiently rectifies the issue according to Cisco recommendations?

A. Nothing needed to be added on the Cisco WLC or VLAN interface. The ISE configuration must be fixed.
B. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC.
C. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC and run the ip helper-address command under the VLAN interface to point to
DHCP and the two ISE servers.
D. Keep DHCP proxy enabled on the Cisco WLC and define helper-address under the VLAN interface to point to the
two ISE servers.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/110865-dhcp-wlc.html

 

QUESTION 12

Which two steps are needed to complete integration of the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure and be able to track the location of clients/rogues on maps? (Choose two.)

A. Synchronize access points with the MSE.
B. Add the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure using the CLI credentials.
C. Add the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure using the Cisco Prime Infrastructure communication credentials
configured during set up.
D. Apply a valid license for Wireless Intrusion Prevention System.
E. Apply a valid license for location tracking.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/prime/infrastructure/33/user/guide/bk_CiscoPrimeInfrastructure_3_3_0_UserGuide/bk_CiscoPrimeInfrastructure_3_3_0_UserGuide_chapter_0100110.html

 

QUESTION 13

An engineer has implemented advanced location services for a retail wireless deployment. The marketing department
wants to collect user demographic information in exchange for guest WLAN access and to have a customized portal per location hosted by the provider. Which social connector must be tied into Cisco CMX to provide this service?

A. Gmail
B. Google+
C. Facebook
D. MySpace

Verify answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
BCAACACCABBBCCEC

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Lead4Pass shares the latest and effective 300-820 dumps to help pass the 300-820 exam: “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Cloud and Edge Solutions (CLCEI)“!
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Cisco 300-820 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Traversal Server
B. Advanced Networking
C. Device Provisioning
D. Rich Media Sessions
E. TURN Relays
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Core can use private CA signed certificate.
B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store.
C. Expressway must generate certificate signing request.
D. Expressway Edge must use public CA signed certificate.
E. The Jabber client can work with public or private CA signed certificate.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two outbound connections should an administrator configure on the internal firewall? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP: TCP 7400
B. SIP: TCP 7001
C. SIP TCP 5061
D. Media: UDP 36012 to 59999
E. HTTPS: TCP 8443
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X12-5/CiscoExpressway-IP-Port-Usage-for-Firewall-Traversal-Deployment-Guide-X12-5.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
Which configuration is required when implementing Mobile and Remote Access on Cisco Expressway?
A. IPS
B. SAML authentication
C. Cisco Unified CM publisher address
D. SSO
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.)
A. d20d16d20d22
B. 2091652010224
C. 209165200225
D. d209d165d200d224
E. 209165200224
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 6
When an Expressway-E is configured for static NAT, which Session Description Protocol attribute is modified to reflect
the NAT address?
A. SDP b-line
B. SIP record route
C. SDP c-line
D. SDP m-line
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which role does Call Policy play when preventing toll fraud on Expressways?
A. It controls which calls are allowed, which calls are rejected, and which calls are redirected to a different destination.
B. It changes the calling and called number on a call.
C. It changes the audio protocol used by a call through Expressways.
D. It changes the audio codec used in a call through Expressways.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
When designing the call control on a Cisco Expressway Core, which is the sequence of dial plan functions?
A. transforms, CPL, user policy, search rules
B. search rules, zones, local zones
C. DNS zone, local zone, search rules
D. search rules, transforms
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?
A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.
B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.
C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.
D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What is a key configuration requirement for Hybrid Message Service High Availability deployment with multiple IM and
Presence clusters?
A. You must have the Intercluster Sync Agent working across your IM and Presence clusters.
B. You must have the Intercluster Lookup Service working across all of your IM and Presence clusters.
C. Your IM and Presence Service clusters must have Multiple Device Messaging disabled.
D. AXL service should be activated only on the publisher of each IM and Presence cluster.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
How does an administrator configure an Expressway to make sure an external caller cannot reach a specific internal
address?
A. add the specific URI in the firewall section of the Expressway and block it
B. block the call with a call policy rule in the Expressway-E
C. add a search rule route all calls to the Cisco UCM
D. configure FAC for the destination alias on the Expressway
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages.
What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices?
A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space.
B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages.
C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path.
D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of a transform in the Expressway server?
A. A transform has the function as a neighbor zone in the Expressway. It creates a connection with another server.
B. A transform changes the audio codec when the call goes through the Expressway.
C. A transform is used to route calls to a destination.
D. A transform changes an alias that matches certain criteria into another alias.
Correct Answer: D

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Lead4Pass shares the latest and effective 300-810 dumps to help pass the 300-810 exam: “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA)“! Lead4Pass 300-810 Dumps includes 300-810 VCE dumps and 300-810 PDF dumps.
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Cisco 300-810 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two methods does Cisco Jabber use for contact searching in an on-premises deployment model? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. XMPP
C. UDS
D. LDAP
E. SIP
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/presence.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which function of the Cisco IM and Presence high availability solution is true?
A. When the server has been restored to a normal state, user sessions remain on the backup server.
B. When an event takes place, the end user sessions are not moved from the failed server to the backup.
C. When the server has been restored, the server automatically fails back.
D. When a high availability event takes place, the end user sessions are moved from the failed server to the backup.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-im-presenceservice/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which service must be activated on Cisco Unity Connection to utilize LDAP synchronization?
A. Cisco Tomcat
B. Cisco Sync Agent
C. Cisco DirSync
D. Cisco RIS Data Collector
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/10x/administration/guide/10xcucsagx/10xcucsag120.html

 

QUESTION 4
Which component of SAML SSO defines the transport mechanism that is used to deliver the SAML messages between
entities?
A. profiles
B. metadata
C. assertions
D. bindings
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which SAML 2.0 profile is supported by Cisco UCM, Cisco Unified IM and Presence, and Unity Connection version 10.x
and above?
A. single logout
B. web browser SSO
C. name identifier management
D. identity provider discovery
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q6

Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in
the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is
configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this
issue?
A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Feature Services.
C. Restart XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Network Services.
D. Activate XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsol-chat-00.html

 

QUESTION 7
What are two Cisco Jabber 12.6 on-premises deployment types that can be run on a Windows- enabled PC? (Choose
two.)
A. Contact Center Agent
B. IM-only
C. multicloud-based
D. Full UC
E. cloud-based
Correct Answer: BD
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/12_6/cjab_b_on-prem-deployment-ciscojabber_12-6.pdf

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q8

Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to
Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in
the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in?
A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp.
B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM.
C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong.
D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/ta-p/3143446

 

QUESTION 9
Which two protocols does the Cisco IM Presence service use to federate with external domains? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP
B. SNMP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
E. SMPP
Correct Answer: AC
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/interdomain_federation/11_5_1/cup0_b_interdomain-federation-guide-imp-115.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.cisco 300-810 questions q10

Which statement is true?
A. If the IMandP node in sub-cluster-1 goes down, then users assigned to it are randomly split between the two
remaining subclusters.
B. The administrator must add one node to each subcluster for high availability.
C. IMandP nodes in each subscluster must be configured from the same OVA template.
D. Each Cisco IMandP subcluster must have the same number of nodes.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring DNS for service discovery in a Jabber deployment for on-premises clients. Which snippet will
complete the SRV record name _tcp.example.com?
A. _cisco_uds
B. _collab_edge
C. _xmpp.server
D. _xmpp-client
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2016/pdf/BRKCOL-2344.pdf

 

QUESTION 12
Which SAML component specifies the mapping of SAML assertion protocol message exchanges with standard
messaging formats or communication protocols such as SOAP exchanges?
A. SAML binding
B. SAML assertion
C. SAML profiles
D. SAML protocol
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_Assertion_Markup_Language

 

QUESTION 13
SAML SSO is enabled in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What happens when a browser- based client
attempts to access a protected resource on a service provider?
A. The browser follows the redirect and issues an HTTPS GET request to the IdP.
B. The IdP checks for a valid browser session.
C. The service provider generates a SAML authentication request.
D. The SAML request is maintained as a query parameter in the GET request.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/SAML_SSO_deployment_guide/12_5_1/cucm_b_samlsso-deployment-guide-12_5/cucm_b_saml-sso-deployment-guide-12_5_chapter_01.html


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Latest updates Cisco 500-490 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation.
B. ISE plays a critical role in SD-Access.
C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it
moves.
D. ISE can provide data about when a specific device connected to the network.
E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. It distributed deployments, failover from primary to secondary Policy Administration Nodes happens automatically.
B. The number of logs that ISE can retain is determined by your disk space.
C. ISE supports IPv6 downloadable ACLs.
D. ISE can detected endpoints whose addresses have been translated via NAT.
E. ISE supports up to 100 Policy Services Nodes.
F. In two-nodes standalone ISE deployments, failover must be done manually.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up.
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you.
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration.
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which option will help build your customers platform during the discovery phase?
A. business case
B. detailed design
C. POV report
D. high-level design
E. PO
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How would Cisco ISE handle authentication for your printer that does not have a supplicant?
A. ISE would not authenticate the printer as printers are not subject to ISE authentication.
B. ISE would authenticate the printer using 802.1X authentication.
C. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAB.
D. ISE would authenticate the printer using web authentication.
E. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAC RADIUS authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs
B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices
C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set
D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks
E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
What are three ways in which Cisco ISE learns information about devices? (Choose three.)
A. user authentication to the ISE
B. SMTP agents
C. RPC mechanism via HTTPS
D. traffic generated by the device
E. network servers the device has accessed
F. RADIUS attributes
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 8
Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible.
B. Show the customer how to integrate ISE into DNA Center at the end of the demo.
C. Focus on business benefits.
D. Keep the demo at a high level.
E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco product were incorporated into Cisco ISE between ISE releases 2.0 and 2.3?
A. Cisco ASA
B. Cisco ESA
C. Cisco ACS
D. Cisco WSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.)
A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SE, you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than contributing to demo
innovation.
B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations.
C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details.
D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach.
E. During a demo, you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. providing VPN access for any type of device
B. providing information about every device that touches the network
C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection
D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices
E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies
F. allocating resources
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose two.)
A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus
B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements
C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership
D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling
E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRE tunnel to a mobility controller for policy
and application visibility
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s discovery process? (Choose two.)
A. Establishing credibility with the customer
B. Working with the customer to develop a reference architecture
C. Referencing the PPDIOO model to effectively facilitate the discussion
D. Gathering information about the current state of the customer\\’s network environment
E. Mapping Cisco innovation to customer\\’s needs
Correct Answer: AD

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Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing?
A. It permits all traffic without logging.
B. It drops all traffic.
C. It inspects all traffic.
D. It permits and logs all traffic.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall?
A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity.
B. To protect one virtual network segment from another.
C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements.
D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session.
E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks.
Correct Answer: A
The term personal firewall typically applies to the basic software that can control Layer 3 and Layer 4 access to client
machines. HIPS provides several features that offer more robust security than a traditional personal firewall, such as
host intrusion prevention and protection against spyware, viruses, worms, Trojans, and other types of malware. Source:
Cisco Official Certification Guide, Personal Firewalls and Host Intrusion Prevention Systems, p.499

 

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 4
Which protocol offers data integrity, encryption, authentication, and antireplay functions for IPsec VPN?
A. AH protocol
B. ESP protocol
C. IKEv2 protocol
D. IKEv1 protocol
Correct Answer: B
IP Security Protocol—Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is a security protocol used to provide confidentiality (encryption), data origin
authentication, integrity, optional antireplay service, and limited traffic flow confidentiality by defeating traffic flow
analysis.
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=24833andamp;seqNum=3

 

QUESTION 5
Which ports need to be active for AAA server to integrate with Microsoft AD
A. 445 and 8080
B. 443 and 389
C. 445 and 389
D. 443 and 8080
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
Split tunneling is a computer networking concept which allows a mobile user to access dissimilar security domains like a
public network (e.g., the Internet) and a local LAN or WAN at the same time, using the same or different network
connections. This connection state is usually facilitated through the simultaneous use of, a Local Area Network (LAN)
Network Interface Card (NIC), radio NIC, Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) NIC, and VPN client software
application without the benefit of access control. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Split_tunneling

 

QUESTION 7
You are configuring a NAT rule on a Cisco ASA. Which description of a mapped interface is true?
A. It is mandatory for all firewall modes.
B. It is mandatory for identity NAT only.
C. It is optional in transparent mode.
D. It is optional in routed mode.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which is a key security component of MDM deployment?
A. Using the network-specific installer package
B. Using self-signed certificates to validate the server – generate a self-signed certificate to connect to the server (Deployed
certificates; Issued certificate to the server likely)
C. Using application tunnel
D. Using MS-CHAPv2 as primary EAP method
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
When is the best time to perform an anti-virus signature update?
A. Every time a new update is available.
B. When the local scanner has detected a new virus.
C. When a new virus is discovered in the wild.
D. When the system detects a browser hook.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A
Firewalls are generally designed to be on the network perimeter and can handle dropping a lot of the non- legitimate
traffic (attacks, scans, etc.) very quickly at the ingress interface, often in hardware. An IDS/IPS are, generally speaking,
doing more deep packet inspections and that is a much more computationally expensive undertaking. For that reason,
we prefer to filter what gets to it with the firewall line of defense before engaging the IDS/IPS to analyze the traffic flow.
Source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/discussion/12428821/correct-placement-idsips- network-architecture

 

QUESTION 11
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A
Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST) is a protocol proposal by Cisco Systems as a replacement for
LEAP. The protocol was designed to address the weaknesses of LEAP while preserving the “lightweight”
implementation. Use of server certificates is optional in EAP-FAST. EAP-FAST uses a Protected Access Credential
(PAC) to establish a TLS tunnel in which client credentials are verified. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extensible_Authentication_Protocol

 

QUESTION 12
What are the primary attack methods of VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP hopping
B. Switch spoofing
C. CAM-table overflow
D. Double tagging
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13
Which command do you enter to enable authentication for OSPF on an interface?
A. router(config-if)#ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 CISCOPASS
B. router(config-router)#area 0 authentication message-digest
C. router(config-router)#ip ospf authentication-key CISCOPASS
D. router(config-if)#ip ospf authentication message-digest
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which statement about threat actors is true?
A. They are any company assets that are threatened.
B. They are any assets that are threatened.
C. They are perpetrators of attacks.
D. They are victims of attacks.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data normalization
B. data availability
C. data protection
D. data signature
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are the three metrics, or andquot; scores,andquot; of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System
(CVSS)? (Select all that apply.)
A. Baseline score
B. Base score
C. Environmental score
D. Temporal score
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 4
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable
component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which two potions are the primary 5-tuple components? (Choose two)
A. destination IP address
B. header length
C. sequence number
D. checksum
E. source IP address
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the Exhibit. A customer reports that they cannot access your organization\\’s website. Which option is a
possible reason that the customer cannot access the website?lead4pass 210-255 exam question q6

A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial-of-service.
B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet censors.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are not components of the 5-tuple of flow in NetFlow? (Select all that apply.)
A. Source IP address
B. Flow record ID
C. Gateway
D. Source port
E. Destination port
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 8
Which CVSS metric describes the conditions that are beyond the attacker\\’s control that must exist to exploit the
vulnerability?
A. User interaction
B. Attack vector
C. attack complexity
D. privileges required
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which signature type results in a legitime alert been dismissed?
A. True negative
B. False negative
C. True Positive
D. False Positive
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following Linux file systems not only supports journaling but also modifies important data structures of the
file system, such as the ones destined to store the file data for better performance and reliability?
A. GRUB
B. LILO
C. Ext4
D. FAT32
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high. Which potential result is true?lead4pass 210-255 exam question q12

A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
Which of the following is one of the main goals of the CSIRT?
A. To configure the organization\\’s firewalls
B. To monitor the organization\\’s IPS devices
C. To minimize and control the damage associated with incidents, provide guidance for mitigation, and work to prevent
future incidents
D. To hire security professionals who will be part of the InfoSec team of the organization.
Correct Answer: C

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Free test Cisco Field Engineer 500-490 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up.
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you.
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration.
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 2
Which component of the SD-Access fabric is responsible for communicating with networks that are external to the
fabric?
A. edge nodes
B. control plane nodes
C. intermediate nodes
D. border nodes
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three.)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apple Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 4
Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose two.)
A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus
B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements
C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership
D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling
E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRE tunnel to a mobility controller for policy
and application visibility
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 5
Which are two advantages of a “one switch at a time” approach to integrating SD-Access into an existing brownfield
environment? (Choose two.)
A. appropriate for campus and remote site environment
B. allows simplified testing prior to cutover
C. ideal for protecting recent investments while upgrading legacy hardware
D. involves the least risk of all approaches
E. opens up many new design and deployment opportunities
F. allows simplified roll back
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.)
A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SE, you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than contributing to demo
innovation.
B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations.
C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details.
D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach.
E. During a demo, you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 7
What are the three foundational elements required for the new operational paradigm? (Choose three.)
A. centralization
B. assurance
C. application QoS
D. multiple technologies at multiple OSI layers
E. policy-based automated provisioning of network
F. fabric
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 8
Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform?
A. single sign-on
B. IPv6 transport (WAN)
C. 2-factor authentication
D. license enforcement
E. reporting
F. non-Ethernet interfaces
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs
B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices
C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set
D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks
E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 10
What should you do if you are looking at a strategic win with a customer and the customer wants to examine Cisco ISE
for longer than a few weeks?
A. Give them some of our flash files that can be played on any browser.
B. Set them up with an account on a Cisco UCS server that hosts ISE.
C. Set them up with a dCloud account.
D. Give them our ISE YouTube videos.
E. Provide them with a downloadable POV lit.
F. Point them to our dCloud demo library.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.)
A. use of overlays
B. use of Virtual Network IDs
C. focus on user endpoints
D. use of group policy
E. use of Endpoint Groups
F. use of Scalable Group Tags
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 12
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which Cisco vEdge router offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput?
A. Cisco vEdge 5000
B. Cisco vEdge 1000
C. Cisco vEdge 2000
D. Cisco vEdge 100
Correct Answer: A

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Free test Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
In Ethernet Aggregation applications, which option is needed when the U-PE connects to an N-PE and broadband
remote access server?
A. Ethernet Multipoint Service
B. E1
C. VPLS
D. DSLAM
E. wire emulation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What does UDLD stand for?
A. UniDirectional Loop Detection
B. Unspecified Distribution Label Detection
C. Unified Distribution Label Direction
D. UniDirectional Link Detection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS on its network. The ISP is currently redesigning the network, to improve
performance and convergence. Which two IS-IS features meet the ISP requirements when changes happen on the
network? (Choose two.)
A. IP Event Dampening
B. Bidirectional Forwarding failure detection
C. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
D. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP generation exponential backoff timers
E. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
Correct Answer: DE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_isis/configuration/15-s/irs-15-s-book/irs-fscnt.html

QUESTION 4
Which two characteristics are benefits of MPLS LDP lossless MD5 session authentication? (Choose two.)
A. It allows for asymmetric passwords.
B. It uses the MPLS LDP targeted hello, which is authenticated, instead of the regular MPLS LDP hello, which cannot be
authenticated.
C. It allows you to achieve or change LDP MD5 session authentication without interrupting the LDP session.
D. It uses the MD5 method, which is a more secure authentication method than traditional MPLS LDP authentication,
which uses a cleartext method.
E. It enables authentication for UDP MPLS LDP discovery packets as well as TCP MPLS LDP label exchange
sessions.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-
os/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_ldp_lossless_md5.pdf

QUESTION 5
A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that
the service level agreement has been honored?
A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now
C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now
E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 6
Which statement about provider-independent and provider-assigned address blocks is true?
A. There is no difference.
B. PI space is not globally routable and can be used as private addressing.
C. PA space is globally routable and can be obtained from IANA by all organizations.
D. PA space is assigned by the ISP and PI space is assigned by the regional registry. Both are globally routable.
E. PI and PA blocks are both assigned by the regional registry to all organizations.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which protocol provides an alternative to the STP, which provides a way to control network loops, handle link failures,
and improve convergence time and can coexist with STP?
A. PBB-EVPN
B. IEEE 802.1ah
C. Flex links
D. E-TREE
E. REP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS
domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6
multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it?
A. IGMP snooping
B. MLD snooping
C. MLD querier
D. IGMP version 3
E. MLD version 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q9

Routers R1 and R2 have exchanged label binding information. What is preventing the labels from populating the MPLS
forwarding table?
A. MTU on the serial interface cannot accommodate labels.
B. Cisco Express Forwarding is not running.
C. The MPLS label distribution protocol is mismatched.
D. Inbound access list 100 is applied on the serial interface.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two options describe how 6RD compares to automatic 6to4 tunneling? (Choose two.)
A. 6RD provides a controlled exit point from the IPv6 Internet.
B. 6RD provides a controlled entry point to the IPv6 Internet.
C. 6RD is widely available in current OS implementations.
D. Automatic 6to4 tunneling is widely available in current OS implementations.
E. Automatic 6to4 tunneling and 6RD use a well-known IPv6 prefix.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11lead4pass 400-201 exam question q11

Refer to the exhibit AS 200 uses the CSC solution provided by AS 100 with regards to the packets originated on ABC-
Site2 going toward to ABC-Site1, how many labels are in the label stack of these packets when they cross the link
between CSC-PE2 and CS-P?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two factors are significant drivers for 5G in IoT networks? (Choose two.)
A. Programmability
B. Energy Efficiency
C. Mass Connectivity
D. Higher data rates
E. Lower Latency
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13lead4pass 400-201 exam question q13

Refer to the exhibit. Which physical interface provides the clock information?
A. Gi0/4
B. Gi0/11
C. Gi0/10
D. Gi0/5
Correct Answer: C

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300-320 ARCH – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/arch-300-320.html

Latest effective Cisco 300-320 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
When designing data centers for multitenancy, which two benefits are provided by the implementation of VSAN and
zoning? (choose two)
A. VSAN provides a means of restricting visibility and connectivity among devices connected to a zone
B. VSANs have their own set of services and address space, which prevents an issue in one VSAN from affecting
others
C. Zones provide the ability to create many logical SAN fabrics on a single Cisco MDS 9100 family switch
D. VSANs and zones use separate fabrics
E. Zones allow an administrator to control which initiators can see which targets
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 2
While configuring a QoS policy, analysis of the switching infrastructure indicates that the switches support 1P3Q3T
egress queuing. Which option describes the egress queuing in the infrastructure?
A. The threshold configuration allows for inter-queue QoS by utilizing buffers.
B. The priority queue must contain real-time traffic and network management traffic.
C. The 1P3Q3T indicates one priority queue, three standard queues, and three thresholds.
D. The priority queue should use less than 20% of the total bandwidth.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which three authentication services are supported by Cisco NAC Appliance? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. Kerberos
D. TACACS+
E. local
F. SNMP
Correct Answer: ABC
Working with Existing Backend Authentication Servers When working with existing backend authentication servers,
Cisco supports the following authentication protocol types:
Kerberos
RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)
Windows NT (NTLM Auth Server)
LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/nac/appliance/configuration_guide/47/cam/ 47cam-book/m_auth.html


QUESTION 4
Design for data center where you don\\’t have to dedicate one switch per rack?
A. Top of rack
B. End of row
C. Blade Switch
D. Middle of row
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Cisco FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are two
advantages of using Cisco FabricPath technology? (Choose two)
A. Cisco FabricPath relies on OSPF to support Layer 2 forwarding between switches, which allows load balancing
between redundant paths.
B. Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning.
C. Loop mitigation is provided by the TTL field in the frame.
D. Cisco FabricPath is IETF-standard and is not used with Cisco products.
E. Cisco FabricPath technology is supported in all Cisco platforms and can replace legacy Ethernet in all campus
networks.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 6
Which four primary attributes define a WAN service? (Choose four.)
A. bandwidth
B. bursting capacity
C. memory
D. CPU
E. QoS classes and policies
F. latency
G. multicast support
Correct Answer: ABEG


QUESTION 7
Which command can you enter to inject BGP routes into an IGP?
A. redistribute bgp
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute static subnet
D. default-information originate
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q8An engineer must apply IP addressing to five new WAN sites and choses the new subnets pictured. The previous
administrator applied the addressing at Headquarters. Whitch option is the minimum summary range to cover the
existing WAN sites while also allowing for three additional WAN sites of the same size, for future growth?
A. 10.0.60.0/18
B. 10.0.64.0/21
C. 10.0.64.0/17
D. 10.0.0.0/17
E. 10.0.64.0/18
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 9
What QoS technology allows traffic to pass even though it has exceeded the bandwidth limit but will be queued later?
A. Shaping
B. Policing
C. Weighted Fair Queuing
D. Low Latency Queuing
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
An engineer is redesigning the infrastructure for a campus environment. The engineer must maximize the use of the
links between the core and distribution layers. By which two methods can this usage be maximized? (Choose two.)
A. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use RPVSTP+
B. Design with multiple unequal-cost links between the core and distribution layers.
C. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use an IGP
D. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use HSRP.
E. Design with multiple equal-cost links between the core and distribution layers.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 11
An CSPF router should have a maximum of how many adjacent neighbors?
A. 80
B. 60
C. 100
D. 50
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag and Drop question with regards to Cisco Application-Centric Infrastructure ACI .
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q12 lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q12-1

QUESTION 13
What is the preferred protocol for a router that is running an IPv4 and IPv6 dual stack configuration?
A. IPX
B. microsoft Netbios
C. IPv6
D. IPv4
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
Which one of these could you implement to sustain a large DDoS attack?
A. Stateful firewall
B. uRPF
C. Connections limits and timeouts
D. Access-lists
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
Which statement about Fibre Channel communications is correct?
A. N_Port to N_Port connections use logical node connection points.
B. Flow control is only provided by QoS.
C. It must be implemented in an arbitrated loop.
D. Communication methods are similar to those of an Ethernet bus.
Correct Answer: A
Fibre Channel supports a logical node connection point between node ports (N_ports). This is similar to TCP and UDP
sockets.


QUESTION 16
What location are security policies enforced in ACI?
A. End Point
B. Spine
C. Leaf
D. APIC
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 17
L2 extention through IP in the data center (MAC-in-IP)
A. fiberpath
B. TRILL
C. OTV
D. Vxlan
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 18
What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?
A. It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
B. Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
C. There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
D. SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. multicast routing uses RPF.
B. multicast routing is connectionless.
C. In multicast routing, the source of a packet is known.
D. When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not rebuilt, but use the original path
E. Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the only difference being that it has a a group of receivers rather
than just one destination
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 20
Which statement about the ToR design model is true?
A. It can shorten cable runs and simplify rack connectivity.
B. Each ToR switch must be individually managed.
C. Multiple ToR switches can be interconnected to provide a loop-free spanning-tree infrastructure.
D. It can connect servers that are located in separate racks.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 21
Which Cisco feature can be run on a Cisco router that terminates a WAN connection, to gather and provide WAN circuit
information that helps switchover to dynamically back up the WAN circuit?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. IP SLA
C. passive interface
D. traffic shaping
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
A company needs to configure a new firewall and have only one public IP address to use in this firewall. The engineer
need to configure the firewall with NAT to handle inbound traffic to the mail server in addition to internet outbound
traffic.lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q22Which options could he use ? (Choose Two)
A. Static NAT for inbound traffic on port 25
B. Dynamic NAT for outbound traffic
C. Static NAT for outbound traffic on port 25
D. Dynamic NAT for inbound traffic
E. NAT overload for outbound traffic
F. NAT overload for inboud traffic on port 25
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 23
Which two key components are related to one firewall per ISP design option for e-commerce? (Choose two.)
A. It is a common approach to single-homing.
B. This approach is commonly used in large sites.
C. Any failure on an edge router results in a loss of session.
D. It has one NAT to two ISP-assigned blocks.
E. It is difficult to set up and administer.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 24
Which technology should a network designer combine with VSS to ensure a loop free topology with optimal
convergence time?
A. Portfast
B. UplinkFast
C. RPVST +
D. Mulitchassis EtherChannel
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
A Network administrator want to increase the security level in the core layer and want to confirm that the users that have
their default GW on an interface in the core switch can access specific networks and can\\’t access the remaining
networks.
Which feature can help him to achieve this?
A. vlan access control list
B. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html
C. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html
D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 26
A company have single ASA hardware box and they need to separate company departments in way that they can apply
different rules on them, ACL, NAT, and so on… Which mode is needed?
A. routed mode
B. transparent mode
C. multiple context mode
D. active failover mode
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
` the rule on the left to match the appropriate activity on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q27Correct Answer: lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q27-1

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q28Correct Answer: lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q28-1Enable specifically at the network edge >STP Manually prune unused VLANs >Trunks Use specifically on fiber-optic
interconnections that link switches >UDLD Ensure that an individual link failure will not result in an STP failure
>Etherchannel Always use a number of links that is a power of 2 (2, 4, 8) to optimize the load balancing of traffic> VSS


QUESTION 29
A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network. Which option
should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task?
A. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint.
B. Configure QoS in all links.
C. Configure a new NET address.
D. Configure the links as point-to-point.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 30
An engineer is designing a multi cluster bgp network, each cluster has 2 RRs and 4 RR clients which 2 options must be
considered?
A. Clients from all clusters should peer with all RRs
B. All route reflectors should be non client peers and topology partially meshed
C. All RRs must be non client peers in a fully meshed topology
D. Clients must not peer with IBGP speakers outside the client router
E. Clients should peer with at least one other client outside it\\’s cluster
Correct Answer: DE
Route reflectors must still be fully IBGP meshed with nonclients. Therefore, route reflectors reduce meshing within
clusters, but all mesh links outside the cluster must be maintained on the route reflector. The route reflector clients get
information from IBGP speakers outside the cluster via the route reflector.


QUESTION 31
What is an advantage of using the VPC feature in data center environment ?
A. All available uplinks bandwidth is used.
B. FHRP is not required
C. A single IP is used for management of both devices
D. The two switches form a single control plane
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 32
What command essentially turns on auto summarization for EIGRP?
A. area 0 range 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0.0
B. router eigrp 1
C. ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0
D. ip summary-address 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0
E. eigrp stub
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 33
An engineer has an implemented a QOS architecture that requires a signaling protocol to tell routers which flows of
packets require special treatment. Which two mechanisms are important to establish and maintaining QOS
architecture? (choose two)
A. classification
B. tagging
C. packet scheduling
D. admission control
E. resource reservation
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 34
A customer with a single Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance wants to separate multiple segments of the e-commerce
network to allow for different security policies. What firewall technology accommodates these design requirements?
A. Routed mode
B. Virtual-context
C. Transparent mode
D. Virtual private network
E. private VLANs
F. admission control
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 35
OTV to interconnect three data centers and what should there be in each data center
A. VTEP
B. vxlan ?
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 36
A customer requires resiliency and availability for applications hosted in the data center. What two technologies meet
this requirement? (Choose two)
A. SLB
B. LTM
C. GLBP
D. GTM
E. HSRP
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 37
Which option prevents the dropping of asymmetrically routed packets in active/active failover paired firewalls?
A. Nothing can be done to prevent this from happening.
B. Configure different policies on both firewalls.
C. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to the same asymmetric routing group.
D. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to a different asymmetric routing group.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 38
Which two options regarding the Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tag are true? (Choose two)
A. It is assigned by the Cisco ISE to the user or endpoint session upon login
B. Best practice dictates it should be statically created on the switch
C. It is removed by the Cisco ISE before reaching the endpoint.
D. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a guest group allowing access to minimal services
E. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a security group for common services such as DNS and
DHCP
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 39
In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks
B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported
C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks
Correct Answer: A

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This is the latest update released by the Cisco CCDP Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH v3.0) 300-320 exam questions and answers,and we share 40 exam questions and answers for free to help you improve your skills! You can download 300-320 pdf or watch the 300-320 YouTube video tutorial online! Get the full 300-320 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html (Total questions:600 Q&A). Help you pass the exam quickly!

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