Lead4Pass shares the latest and effective 300-820 dumps to help pass the 300-820 exam: “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Cloud and Edge Solutions (CLCEI)“! Lead4Pass 300-820 Dumps includes 300-820 VCE dumps and 300-820 PDF dumps. Lead4Pass 300-820 test questions have been updated to the latest date to ensure immediate validity. Get the latest Lead4Pass 300-820 dumps (PDF + VCE): https://www.lead4pass.com/300-820.html (94 Q&A dumps)
QUESTION 1 Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two) A. Traversal Server B. Advanced Networking C. Device Provisioning D. Rich Media Sessions E. TURN Relays Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2 Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.) A. Expressway Core can use private CA signed certificate. B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store. C. Expressway must generate certificate signing request. D. Expressway Edge must use public CA signed certificate. E. The Jabber client can work with public or private CA signed certificate. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 Which configuration is required when implementing Mobile and Remote Access on Cisco Expressway? A. IPS B. SAML authentication C. Cisco Unified CM publisher address D. SSO Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.) A. d20d16d20d22 B. 2091652010224 C. 209165200225 D. d209d165d200d224 E. 209165200224 Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 6 When an Expressway-E is configured for static NAT, which Session Description Protocol attribute is modified to reflect the NAT address? A. SDP b-line B. SIP record route C. SDP c-line D. SDP m-line Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which role does Call Policy play when preventing toll fraud on Expressways? A. It controls which calls are allowed, which calls are rejected, and which calls are redirected to a different destination. B. It changes the calling and called number on a call. C. It changes the audio protocol used by a call through Expressways. D. It changes the audio codec used in a call through Expressways. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 When designing the call control on a Cisco Expressway Core, which is the sequence of dial plan functions? A. transforms, CPL, user policy, search rules B. search rules, zones, local zones C. DNS zone, local zone, search rules D. search rules, transforms Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution? A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone. B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only. C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E. D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 What is a key configuration requirement for Hybrid Message Service High Availability deployment with multiple IM and Presence clusters? A. You must have the Intercluster Sync Agent working across your IM and Presence clusters. B. You must have the Intercluster Lookup Service working across all of your IM and Presence clusters. C. Your IM and Presence Service clusters must have Multiple Device Messaging disabled. D. AXL service should be activated only on the publisher of each IM and Presence cluster. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 How does an administrator configure an Expressway to make sure an external caller cannot reach a specific internal address? A. add the specific URI in the firewall section of the Expressway and block it B. block the call with a call policy rule in the Expressway-E C. add a search rule route all calls to the Cisco UCM D. configure FAC for the destination alias on the Expressway Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages. What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices? A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space. B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages. C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path. D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 What is the purpose of a transform in the Expressway server? A. A transform has the function as a neighbor zone in the Expressway. It creates a connection with another server. B. A transform changes the audio codec when the call goes through the Expressway. C. A transform is used to route calls to a destination. D. A transform changes an alias that matches certain criteria into another alias. Correct Answer: D
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Lead4Pass shares the latest and effective 300-810 dumps to help pass the 300-810 exam: “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA)“! Lead4Pass 300-810 Dumps includes 300-810 VCE dumps and 300-810 PDF dumps. Lead4Pass 300-810 test questions have been updated to the latest date to ensure immediate validity. Get the latest Lead4Pass 300-810 dumps (PDF + VCE): https://www.lead4pass.com/300-810.html (101 Q&A dumps)
QUESTION 4 Which component of SAML SSO defines the transport mechanism that is used to deliver the SAML messages between entities? A. profiles B. metadata C. assertions D. bindings Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which SAML 2.0 profile is supported by Cisco UCM, Cisco Unified IM and Presence, and Unity Connection version 10.x and above? A. single logout B. web browser SSO C. name identifier management D. identity provider discovery Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.
Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this issue? A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation. B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Feature Services. C. Restart XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Network Services. D. Activate XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsol-chat-00.html
Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in? A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp. B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM. C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong. D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/ta-p/3143446
Which statement is true? A. If the IMandP node in sub-cluster-1 goes down, then users assigned to it are randomly split between the two remaining subclusters. B. The administrator must add one node to each subcluster for high availability. C. IMandP nodes in each subscluster must be configured from the same OVA template. D. Each Cisco IMandP subcluster must have the same number of nodes. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which SAML component specifies the mapping of SAML assertion protocol message exchanges with standard messaging formats or communication protocols such as SOAP exchanges? A. SAML binding B. SAML assertion C. SAML profiles D. SAML protocol Correct Answer: A Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_Assertion_Markup_Language
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Cisco 700-105 Practice testing questions from Youtbe
Latest updates Cisco 700-105 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Which description of the Cisco Collaboration architecture is true\\’? A. a flexible network framework designed to enable integration with the collaboration requirements of the customer B. a flexible collaboration framework designed to support any customer and any user collaboration needs C. a collaboration framework designed to support the collaboration needs of a typical large enterprise D. a collaboration framework designed to integrate the existing customer collaboration functionalities with Cisco network infrastructure Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which option describes the endpoints that are supported on applications that are included under the Cisco Business Edition 6000 umbrella? A. all Cisco voice and video endpoints except Cisco Telepresence room systems B. all Cisco voice and video endpoints except Cisco Telepresence EX Series and Cisco Telepresence room systems C. all Cisco voice and video endpoints except IEEE 802.11 Wi-Fi endpoints D. all Cisco voice and video endpoints Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which four options are the main areas of Cisco Collaboration? (Choose four) A. virtual support B. flexibility C. conferencing D. customer collaboration E. unified communications F. social software G. collaboration endpoints H. voicemail Correct Answer: BCEG
QUESTION 4 How does Cisco Collaboration address the need for different endpoints? A. by introducing Cisco data center unified computing functionalities to support collaboration requirements. B. by offering various different phones C. with a consistent user experience regardless of the type or location of the endpoint D. by focusing on software clients only O E) by enabling WebEx to support video Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 What value does Cisco Business Edition 6000 bring to midmarket businesses? A. enhanced collaboration functionalities by adding only a few additional servers B. affordable, advanced collaboration functionalities on a single server C. colocation with the existing telephony system D. adds video collaboration capabilities on top of the existing telephony system Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which information is provided by the Cisco Partner Proposal Library? A. proposal templates B. technical descriptions C. Cisco pricelist D. FAQs for Cisco Business Edition 6000 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which two statements about Cisco Validated Designs and Smart Business Architectures are true? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Validated Designs provide the proven design of solutions that include only Cisco products and thus ensure single-vendor solutions. B. Cisco Validated Designs are end-to-end designs that are well-tested and fully documented. C. Smart Business Architecture guides are available for enterprise-sized deployments only. D. Smart Business Architecture is a blueprint for delivering the three Cisco architectures in a modular approach. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8 Which Cisco online resource provides partners with the most comprehensive set of Cisco BE6000 sales materials that are aligned to the sales cycle? A. Cisco Selling Collab Portal B. Cisco Business Edition 6000 Product home page C. Cisco Promotions and Incentive D. Cisco BE6000 Partner Sales Guide Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which two operational benefits are provided by Cisco Business Edition 6000 virtualization? (Choose two.) A. reduced risk because each application runs on a separate physical server B. reduced costs through integrated management and a scalable platform C. time savings through easy platform management D. support for multiple management platforms E. reduced costs through support for traditional TDM-based voice systems Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10 Which statement describes the key function provided by Cisco Spark? A. Cisco Spark makes it easier to find experts in your organization. B. Cisco Spark simplifies teamwork by sharing messages and files, and it lets you meet with different teams, all in one place. C. Cisco Spark is available on-premises and in the cloud. D. Cisco Spark can be integrated with Microsoft Lync. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which three collaboration methods are addressed directly by Cisco Collaboration solutions? (Choose three.) A. dispersed workforce B. trust at a distance C. social media collaboration D. structured meetings E. team collaboration F. find and connect G. persistent chat Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 12 How many devices are supported by the Cisco BE6000S model? A. 2500 B. 1000 C. 300 D. 150 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which option are a key challenge for customers and their IT teams caused by the evolution of communication tools? A. skills of the IT teams B. keeping the organizational structure unchanged while adapting to new collaboration solutions C. fragmentation and complexity of collaboration tools D. time for implementation of collaboration hardware E. managing infrastructure that is not based on Cisco Collaboration F. costs of collaboration Correct Answer: D
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Latest updates Cisco 500-490 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.) A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation. B. ISE plays a critical role in SD-Access. C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it moves. D. ISE can provide data about when a specific device connected to the network. E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2 Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.) A. It distributed deployments, failover from primary to secondary Policy Administration Nodes happens automatically. B. The number of logs that ISE can retain is determined by your disk space. C. ISE supports IPv6 downloadable ACLs. D. ISE can detected endpoints whose addresses have been translated via NAT. E. ISE supports up to 100 Policy Services Nodes. F. In two-nodes standalone ISE deployments, failover must be done manually. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.) A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up. B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you. C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration. D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case. E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and complexity. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4 Which option will help build your customers platform during the discovery phase? A. business case B. detailed design C. POV report D. high-level design E. PO Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 How would Cisco ISE handle authentication for your printer that does not have a supplicant? A. ISE would not authenticate the printer as printers are not subject to ISE authentication. B. ISE would authenticate the printer using 802.1X authentication. C. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAB. D. ISE would authenticate the printer using web authentication. E. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAC RADIUS authentication. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.) A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7 What are three ways in which Cisco ISE learns information about devices? (Choose three.) A. user authentication to the ISE B. SMTP agents C. RPC mechanism via HTTPS D. traffic generated by the device E. network servers the device has accessed F. RADIUS attributes Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 8 Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.) A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible. B. Show the customer how to integrate ISE into DNA Center at the end of the demo. C. Focus on business benefits. D. Keep the demo at a high level. E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9 Which Cisco product were incorporated into Cisco ISE between ISE releases 2.0 and 2.3? A. Cisco ASA B. Cisco ESA C. Cisco ACS D. Cisco WSA Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.) A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SE, you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than contributing to demo innovation. B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations. C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details. D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach. E. During a demo, you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11 Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.) A. providing VPN access for any type of device B. providing information about every device that touches the network C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies F. allocating resources Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 12 Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose two.) A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRE tunnel to a mobility controller for policy and application visibility Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13 Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s discovery process? (Choose two.) A. Establishing credibility with the customer B. Working with the customer to develop a reference architecture C. Referencing the PPDIOO model to effectively facilitate the discussion D. Gathering information about the current state of the customer\\’s network environment E. Mapping Cisco innovation to customer\\’s needs Correct Answer: AD
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Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing? A. It permits all traffic without logging. B. It drops all traffic. C. It inspects all traffic. D. It permits and logs all traffic. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall? A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity. B. To protect one virtual network segment from another. C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements. D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session. E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks. Correct Answer: A The term personal firewall typically applies to the basic software that can control Layer 3 and Layer 4 access to client machines. HIPS provides several features that offer more robust security than a traditional personal firewall, such as host intrusion prevention and protection against spyware, viruses, worms, Trojans, and other types of malware. Source: Cisco Official Certification Guide, Personal Firewalls and Host Intrusion Prevention Systems, p.499
QUESTION 3 In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.) A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS. B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet. C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted. D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS. E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS. F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4 Which protocol offers data integrity, encryption, authentication, and antireplay functions for IPsec VPN? A. AH protocol B. ESP protocol C. IKEv2 protocol D. IKEv1 protocol Correct Answer: B IP Security Protocol—Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is a security protocol used to provide confidentiality (encryption), data origin authentication, integrity, optional antireplay service, and limited traffic flow confidentiality by defeating traffic flow analysis. http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=24833andamp;seqNum=3
QUESTION 5 Which ports need to be active for AAA server to integrate with Microsoft AD A. 445 and 8080 B. 443 and 389 C. 445 and 389 D. 443 and 8080 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection? A. split tunneling B. hairpinning C. tunnel mode D. transparent mode Correct Answer: A Split tunneling is a computer networking concept which allows a mobile user to access dissimilar security domains like a public network (e.g., the Internet) and a local LAN or WAN at the same time, using the same or different network connections. This connection state is usually facilitated through the simultaneous use of, a Local Area Network (LAN) Network Interface Card (NIC), radio NIC, Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) NIC, and VPN client software application without the benefit of access control. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Split_tunneling
QUESTION 7 You are configuring a NAT rule on a Cisco ASA. Which description of a mapped interface is true? A. It is mandatory for all firewall modes. B. It is mandatory for identity NAT only. C. It is optional in transparent mode. D. It is optional in routed mode. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which is a key security component of MDM deployment? A. Using the network-specific installer package B. Using self-signed certificates to validate the server – generate a self-signed certificate to connect to the server (Deployed certificates; Issued certificate to the server likely) C. Using application tunnel D. Using MS-CHAPv2 as primary EAP method Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 When is the best time to perform an anti-virus signature update? A. Every time a new update is available. B. When the local scanner has detected a new virus. C. When a new virus is discovered in the wild. D. When the system detects a browser hook. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure? A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall Correct Answer: A Firewalls are generally designed to be on the network perimeter and can handle dropping a lot of the non- legitimate traffic (attacks, scans, etc.) very quickly at the ingress interface, often in hardware. An IDS/IPS are, generally speaking, doing more deep packet inspections and that is a much more computationally expensive undertaking. For that reason, we prefer to filter what gets to it with the firewall line of defense before engaging the IDS/IPS to analyze the traffic flow. Source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/discussion/12428821/correct-placement-idsips- network-architecture
QUESTION 11 Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials? A. EAP-FAST B. EAP-TLS C. EAP-PEAP D. EAP-GTC Correct Answer: A Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST) is a protocol proposal by Cisco Systems as a replacement for LEAP. The protocol was designed to address the weaknesses of LEAP while preserving the “lightweight” implementation. Use of server certificates is optional in EAP-FAST. EAP-FAST uses a Protected Access Credential (PAC) to establish a TLS tunnel in which client credentials are verified. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extensible_Authentication_Protocol
QUESTION 12 What are the primary attack methods of VLAN hopping? (Choose two.) A. VoIP hopping B. Switch spoofing C. CAM-table overflow D. Double tagging Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13 Which command do you enter to enable authentication for OSPF on an interface? A. router(config-if)#ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 CISCOPASS B. router(config-router)#area 0 authentication message-digest C. router(config-router)#ip ospf authentication-key CISCOPASS D. router(config-if)#ip ospf authentication message-digest Correct Answer: D
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Latest Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 Which statement about threat actors is true? A. They are any company assets that are threatened. B. They are any assets that are threatened. C. They are perpetrators of attacks. D. They are victims of attacks. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity? A. data normalization B. data availability C. data protection D. data signature Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which of the following are the three metrics, or andquot; scores,andquot; of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)? (Select all that apply.) A. Baseline score B. Base score C. Environmental score D. Temporal score Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 4 Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component? A. confidentiality B. integrity C. availability D. complexity Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which two potions are the primary 5-tuple components? (Choose two) A. destination IP address B. header length C. sequence number D. checksum E. source IP address Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 6 Refer to the Exhibit. A customer reports that they cannot access your organization\\’s website. Which option is a possible reason that the customer cannot access the website?
A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial-of-service. B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus. C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised. D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet censors. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which of the following are not components of the 5-tuple of flow in NetFlow? (Select all that apply.) A. Source IP address B. Flow record ID C. Gateway D. Source port E. Destination port Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8 Which CVSS metric describes the conditions that are beyond the attacker\\’s control that must exist to exploit the vulnerability? A. User interaction B. Attack vector C. attack complexity D. privileges required Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which signature type results in a legitime alert been dismissed? A. True negative B. False negative C. True Positive D. False Positive Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which element is included in an incident response plan? A. organization mission B. junior analyst approval C. day-to-day firefighting D. siloed approach to communications Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which of the following Linux file systems not only supports journaling but also modifies important data structures of the file system, such as the ones destined to store the file data for better performance and reliability? A. GRUB B. LILO C. Ext4 D. FAT32 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high. Which potential result is true?
A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient. B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down. C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised. D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which of the following is one of the main goals of the CSIRT? A. To configure the organization\\’s firewalls B. To monitor the organization\\’s IPS devices C. To minimize and control the damage associated with incidents, provide guidance for mitigation, and work to prevent future incidents D. To hire security professionals who will be part of the InfoSec team of the organization. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.) A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up. B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you. C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration. D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case. E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and complexity. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 2 Which component of the SD-Access fabric is responsible for communicating with networks that are external to the fabric? A. edge nodes B. control plane nodes C. intermediate nodes D. border nodes Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three.) A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics C. Apple Insights D. VXLAN support E. Proactive approach to guided remediation F. Network time travel Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 4 Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose two.) A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRE tunnel to a mobility controller for policy and application visibility Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5 Which are two advantages of a “one switch at a time” approach to integrating SD-Access into an existing brownfield environment? (Choose two.) A. appropriate for campus and remote site environment B. allows simplified testing prior to cutover C. ideal for protecting recent investments while upgrading legacy hardware D. involves the least risk of all approaches E. opens up many new design and deployment opportunities F. allows simplified roll back Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 6 Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.) A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SE, you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than contributing to demo innovation. B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations. C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details. D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach. E. During a demo, you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 7 What are the three foundational elements required for the new operational paradigm? (Choose three.) A. centralization B. assurance C. application QoS D. multiple technologies at multiple OSI layers E. policy-based automated provisioning of network F. fabric Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 8 Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform? A. single sign-on B. IPv6 transport (WAN) C. 2-factor authentication D. license enforcement E. reporting F. non-Ethernet interfaces Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.) A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10 What should you do if you are looking at a strategic win with a customer and the customer wants to examine Cisco ISE for longer than a few weeks? A. Give them some of our flash files that can be played on any browser. B. Set them up with an account on a Cisco UCS server that hosts ISE. C. Set them up with a dCloud account. D. Give them our ISE YouTube videos. E. Provide them with a downloadable POV lit. F. Point them to our dCloud demo library. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.) A. use of overlays B. use of Virtual Network IDs C. focus on user endpoints D. use of group policy E. use of Endpoint Groups F. use of Scalable Group Tags Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12 Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal? A. vBond orchestrator B. vManage C. vSmart controller D. vEdge Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which Cisco vEdge router offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput? A. Cisco vEdge 5000 B. Cisco vEdge 1000 C. Cisco vEdge 2000 D. Cisco vEdge 100 Correct Answer: A
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The CCIE Service Provider exam validate professionals who have the expertise to design, implement, diagnose, and troubleshoot complex Service Provider highly available network infrastructure and services based on dual stack solutions (IPv4 and IPv6); understand how the network and service components interoperate; and understand the functional requirements and translate into specific device configurations.
Free test Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 In Ethernet Aggregation applications, which option is needed when the U-PE connects to an N-PE and broadband remote access server? A. Ethernet Multipoint Service B. E1 C. VPLS D. DSLAM E. wire emulation Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 What does UDLD stand for? A. UniDirectional Loop Detection B. Unspecified Distribution Label Detection C. Unified Distribution Label Direction D. UniDirectional Link Detection Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS on its network. The ISP is currently redesigning the network, to improve performance and convergence. Which two IS-IS features meet the ISP requirements when changes happen on the network? (Choose two.) A. IP Event Dampening B. Bidirectional Forwarding failure detection C. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters D. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP generation exponential backoff timers E. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs Correct Answer: DE Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_isis/configuration/15-s/irs-15-s-book/irs-fscnt.html
QUESTION 4 Which two characteristics are benefits of MPLS LDP lossless MD5 session authentication? (Choose two.) A. It allows for asymmetric passwords. B. It uses the MPLS LDP targeted hello, which is authenticated, instead of the regular MPLS LDP hello, which cannot be authenticated. C. It allows you to achieve or change LDP MD5 session authentication without interrupting the LDP session. D. It uses the MD5 method, which is a more secure authentication method than traditional MPLS LDP authentication, which uses a cleartext method. E. It enables authentication for UDP MPLS LDP discovery packets as well as TCP MPLS LDP label exchange sessions. Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx- os/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_ldp_lossless_md5.pdf
QUESTION 5 A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that the service level agreement has been honored? A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 22.214.171.124 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 126.96.36.199 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 188.8.131.52 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 184.108.40.206 tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 220.127.116.11 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 18.104.22.168 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 6 Which statement about provider-independent and provider-assigned address blocks is true? A. There is no difference. B. PI space is not globally routable and can be used as private addressing. C. PA space is globally routable and can be obtained from IANA by all organizations. D. PA space is assigned by the ISP and PI space is assigned by the regional registry. Both are globally routable. E. PI and PA blocks are both assigned by the regional registry to all organizations. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which protocol provides an alternative to the STP, which provides a way to control network loops, handle link failures, and improve convergence time and can coexist with STP? A. PBB-EVPN B. IEEE 802.1ah C. Flex links D. E-TREE E. REP Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8 IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6 multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it? A. IGMP snooping B. MLD snooping C. MLD querier D. IGMP version 3 E. MLD version 2 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R2 have exchanged label binding information. What is preventing the labels from populating the MPLS forwarding table? A. MTU on the serial interface cannot accommodate labels. B. Cisco Express Forwarding is not running. C. The MPLS label distribution protocol is mismatched. D. Inbound access list 100 is applied on the serial interface. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which two options describe how 6RD compares to automatic 6to4 tunneling? (Choose two.) A. 6RD provides a controlled exit point from the IPv6 Internet. B. 6RD provides a controlled entry point to the IPv6 Internet. C. 6RD is widely available in current OS implementations. D. Automatic 6to4 tunneling is widely available in current OS implementations. E. Automatic 6to4 tunneling and 6RD use a well-known IPv6 prefix. Correct Answer: BD
Refer to the exhibit AS 200 uses the CSC solution provided by AS 100 with regards to the packets originated on ABC- Site2 going toward to ABC-Site1, how many labels are in the label stack of these packets when they cross the link between CSC-PE2 and CS-P? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which two factors are significant drivers for 5G in IoT networks? (Choose two.) A. Programmability B. Energy Efficiency C. Mass Connectivity D. Higher data rates E. Lower Latency Correct Answer: DE
Refer to the exhibit. Which physical interface provides the clock information? A. Gi0/4 B. Gi0/11 C. Gi0/10 D. Gi0/5 Correct Answer: C
We share 13 of the latest Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 exam dumps and 400-201 pdf online download for free.Now you know what you’re capable of! If you’re just interested in this, please keep an eye on “Meetexams.com” blog updates! If you want to get the Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Exam Certificate: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-201.html (Total questions: 845 Q&A).
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Latest effective Cisco 300-320 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 When designing data centers for multitenancy, which two benefits are provided by the implementation of VSAN and zoning? (choose two) A. VSAN provides a means of restricting visibility and connectivity among devices connected to a zone B. VSANs have their own set of services and address space, which prevents an issue in one VSAN from affecting others C. Zones provide the ability to create many logical SAN fabrics on a single Cisco MDS 9100 family switch D. VSANs and zones use separate fabrics E. Zones allow an administrator to control which initiators can see which targets Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 2 While configuring a QoS policy, analysis of the switching infrastructure indicates that the switches support 1P3Q3T egress queuing. Which option describes the egress queuing in the infrastructure? A. The threshold configuration allows for inter-queue QoS by utilizing buffers. B. The priority queue must contain real-time traffic and network management traffic. C. The 1P3Q3T indicates one priority queue, three standard queues, and three thresholds. D. The priority queue should use less than 20% of the total bandwidth. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which three authentication services are supported by Cisco NAC Appliance? (Choose three.) A. RADIUS B. LDAP C. Kerberos D. TACACS+ E. local F. SNMP Correct Answer: ABC Working with Existing Backend Authentication Servers When working with existing backend authentication servers, Cisco supports the following authentication protocol types: Kerberos RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) Windows NT (NTLM Auth Server) LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/nac/appliance/configuration_guide/47/cam/ 47cam-book/m_auth.html
QUESTION 4 Design for data center where you don\\’t have to dedicate one switch per rack? A. Top of rack B. End of row C. Blade Switch D. Middle of row Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Cisco FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are two advantages of using Cisco FabricPath technology? (Choose two) A. Cisco FabricPath relies on OSPF to support Layer 2 forwarding between switches, which allows load balancing between redundant paths. B. Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning. C. Loop mitigation is provided by the TTL field in the frame. D. Cisco FabricPath is IETF-standard and is not used with Cisco products. E. Cisco FabricPath technology is supported in all Cisco platforms and can replace legacy Ethernet in all campus networks. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 Which four primary attributes define a WAN service? (Choose four.) A. bandwidth B. bursting capacity C. memory D. CPU E. QoS classes and policies F. latency G. multicast support Correct Answer: ABEG
QUESTION 7 Which command can you enter to inject BGP routes into an IGP? A. redistribute bgp B. redistribute static C. redistribute static subnet D. default-information originate Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit.An engineer must apply IP addressing to five new WAN sites and choses the new subnets pictured. The previous administrator applied the addressing at Headquarters. Whitch option is the minimum summary range to cover the existing WAN sites while also allowing for three additional WAN sites of the same size, for future growth? A. 10.0.60.0/18 B. 10.0.64.0/21 C. 10.0.64.0/17 D. 10.0.0.0/17 E. 10.0.64.0/18 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9 What QoS technology allows traffic to pass even though it has exceeded the bandwidth limit but will be queued later? A. Shaping B. Policing C. Weighted Fair Queuing D. Low Latency Queuing Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 An engineer is redesigning the infrastructure for a campus environment. The engineer must maximize the use of the links between the core and distribution layers. By which two methods can this usage be maximized? (Choose two.) A. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use RPVSTP+ B. Design with multiple unequal-cost links between the core and distribution layers. C. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use an IGP D. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use HSRP. E. Design with multiple equal-cost links between the core and distribution layers. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 11 An CSPF router should have a maximum of how many adjacent neighbors? A. 80 B. 60 C. 100 D. 50 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 DRAG DROP Drag and Drop question with regards to Cisco Application-Centric Infrastructure ACI . Select and Place:
QUESTION 13 What is the preferred protocol for a router that is running an IPv4 and IPv6 dual stack configuration? A. IPX B. microsoft Netbios C. IPv6 D. IPv4 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 Which one of these could you implement to sustain a large DDoS attack? A. Stateful firewall B. uRPF C. Connections limits and timeouts D. Access-lists Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Which statement about Fibre Channel communications is correct? A. N_Port to N_Port connections use logical node connection points. B. Flow control is only provided by QoS. C. It must be implemented in an arbitrated loop. D. Communication methods are similar to those of an Ethernet bus. Correct Answer: A Fibre Channel supports a logical node connection point between node ports (N_ports). This is similar to TCP and UDP sockets.
QUESTION 16 What location are security policies enforced in ACI? A. End Point B. Spine C. Leaf D. APIC Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 L2 extention through IP in the data center (MAC-in-IP) A. fiberpath B. TRILL C. OTV D. Vxlan Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18 What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management? A. It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management. B. Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage. C. There is no separation between the production network and the management network. D. SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.) A. multicast routing uses RPF. B. multicast routing is connectionless. C. In multicast routing, the source of a packet is known. D. When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not rebuilt, but use the original path E. Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the only difference being that it has a a group of receivers rather than just one destination Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20 Which statement about the ToR design model is true? A. It can shorten cable runs and simplify rack connectivity. B. Each ToR switch must be individually managed. C. Multiple ToR switches can be interconnected to provide a loop-free spanning-tree infrastructure. D. It can connect servers that are located in separate racks. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 Which Cisco feature can be run on a Cisco router that terminates a WAN connection, to gather and provide WAN circuit information that helps switchover to dynamically back up the WAN circuit? A. Cisco Express Forwarding B. IP SLA C. passive interface D. traffic shaping Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 A company needs to configure a new firewall and have only one public IP address to use in this firewall. The engineer need to configure the firewall with NAT to handle inbound traffic to the mail server in addition to internet outbound traffic.Which options could he use ? (Choose Two) A. Static NAT for inbound traffic on port 25 B. Dynamic NAT for outbound traffic C. Static NAT for outbound traffic on port 25 D. Dynamic NAT for inbound traffic E. NAT overload for outbound traffic F. NAT overload for inboud traffic on port 25 Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 23 Which two key components are related to one firewall per ISP design option for e-commerce? (Choose two.) A. It is a common approach to single-homing. B. This approach is commonly used in large sites. C. Any failure on an edge router results in a loss of session. D. It has one NAT to two ISP-assigned blocks. E. It is difficult to set up and administer. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 24 Which technology should a network designer combine with VSS to ensure a loop free topology with optimal convergence time? A. Portfast B. UplinkFast C. RPVST + D. Mulitchassis EtherChannel Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25 A Network administrator want to increase the security level in the core layer and want to confirm that the users that have their default GW on an interface in the core switch can access specific networks and can\\’t access the remaining networks. Which feature can help him to achieve this? A. vlan access control list B. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html C. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 A company have single ASA hardware box and they need to separate company departments in way that they can apply different rules on them, ACL, NAT, and so on… Which mode is needed? A. routed mode B. transparent mode C. multiple context mode D. active failover mode Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27 ` the rule on the left to match the appropriate activity on the right. Select and Place:Correct Answer:
QUESTION 28 DRAG DROP Select and Place:Correct Answer: Enable specifically at the network edge >STP Manually prune unused VLANs >Trunks Use specifically on fiber-optic interconnections that link switches >UDLD Ensure that an individual link failure will not result in an STP failure >Etherchannel Always use a number of links that is a power of 2 (2, 4, 8) to optimize the load balancing of traffic> VSS
QUESTION 29 A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network. Which option should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task? A. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint. B. Configure QoS in all links. C. Configure a new NET address. D. Configure the links as point-to-point. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30 An engineer is designing a multi cluster bgp network, each cluster has 2 RRs and 4 RR clients which 2 options must be considered? A. Clients from all clusters should peer with all RRs B. All route reflectors should be non client peers and topology partially meshed C. All RRs must be non client peers in a fully meshed topology D. Clients must not peer with IBGP speakers outside the client router E. Clients should peer with at least one other client outside it\\’s cluster Correct Answer: DE Route reflectors must still be fully IBGP meshed with nonclients. Therefore, route reflectors reduce meshing within clusters, but all mesh links outside the cluster must be maintained on the route reflector. The route reflector clients get information from IBGP speakers outside the cluster via the route reflector.
QUESTION 31 What is an advantage of using the VPC feature in data center environment ? A. All available uplinks bandwidth is used. B. FHRP is not required C. A single IP is used for management of both devices D. The two switches form a single control plane Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32 What command essentially turns on auto summarization for EIGRP? A. area 0 range 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0.0 B. router eigrp 1 C. ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 D. ip summary-address 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 E. eigrp stub Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33 An engineer has an implemented a QOS architecture that requires a signaling protocol to tell routers which flows of packets require special treatment. Which two mechanisms are important to establish and maintaining QOS architecture? (choose two) A. classification B. tagging C. packet scheduling D. admission control E. resource reservation Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 34 A customer with a single Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance wants to separate multiple segments of the e-commerce network to allow for different security policies. What firewall technology accommodates these design requirements? A. Routed mode B. Virtual-context C. Transparent mode D. Virtual private network E. private VLANs F. admission control Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35 OTV to interconnect three data centers and what should there be in each data center A. VTEP B. vxlan ? Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 A customer requires resiliency and availability for applications hosted in the data center. What two technologies meet this requirement? (Choose two) A. SLB B. LTM C. GLBP D. GTM E. HSRP Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37 Which option prevents the dropping of asymmetrically routed packets in active/active failover paired firewalls? A. Nothing can be done to prevent this from happening. B. Configure different policies on both firewalls. C. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to the same asymmetric routing group. D. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to a different asymmetric routing group. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38 Which two options regarding the Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tag are true? (Choose two) A. It is assigned by the Cisco ISE to the user or endpoint session upon login B. Best practice dictates it should be statically created on the switch C. It is removed by the Cisco ISE before reaching the endpoint. D. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a guest group allowing access to minimal services E. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a security group for common services such as DNS and DHCP Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 39 In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 4 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40 When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer? A. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks Correct Answer: A
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Latest effective Cisco 300-209 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which header is used when a data plane IPsec packet is created? A. IKEv1 B. AES C. SHA D. ESP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE? A. 3DES B. AES C. DES D. RSA Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which two operational advantages does GetVPN offer over site-to-site IPsec tunnel in a private MPLS-based core network? (Choose two.) A. Key servers perform encryption and decryption of all the data in the network, which allows for tight security policies. B. Traffic uses one VRF to encrypt data and a different on to decrypt data, which allows for multicast traffic isolation. C. GETVPN is tunnel-less, which allows any group member to perform decryption and routing around network failures. D. Packets carry original source and destination IP addresses, which allows for optimal routing of encrypted traffic. E. Group Domain of Interpretation protocol allows for homomorphic encryption, which allows group members to operate on messages without decrypting them Correct Answer: CD http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/group-encrypted-transport- vpn/deployment_guide_c07_554713.html
QUESTION 4 An engineer must set up DMPN Phase2 with EIGRP to ensure spoke-to-spoke communication. Which two EIGRP features must be disabled? A. stub routing B. split horizon C. route redistribution D. auto-summary E. next-hop self Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 Which command clears all Cisco AnyConnect VPN sessions on a Cisco ASA? A. vpn-sessiondb logoff anyconnect B. vpn-sessiondb logoff webvpn C. clear crypto isakmp sa D. vpn-sessiondb logoff l2l Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which two option, are benefits of AES compared to 3DES? (Choose two.) A. switches encryption keys every 32 GB of data transfer B. faster encryption C. shorter encryption keys D. longer encryption block length E. repeating encryption keys Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7 The Cisco AnyConnect client is unable to download an updated user profile from the ASA headend using IKEv2. What is the most likely cause of this problem? A. User profile updates are not allowed with IKEv2. B. IKEv2 is not enabled on the group policy. C. A new profile must be created so that the adaptive security appliance can push it to the client on the next connection attempt. D. Client Services is not enabled on the adaptive security appliance. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A company has acquired a competitor whose network infrastructure uses only IPv6. An engineer must configure VPN access sourced from the new company. Which remote access VPN solution must be used? A. GET VPN B. Any Connect C. EzVPN D. DMVPN Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 What does DART stand for? A. Device and report tool B. Diagnostic Anyconnect Reporting Tool C. Delivery and Reporting Tool D. Diagnostics and Reporting Tool Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which option describes the purpose of the shared argument in the DMVPN interface command tunnel protection IPsec profile ProfileName shared? A. shares a single profile between multiple tunnel interfaces B. allows multiple authentication types to be used on the tunnel interface C. shares a single profile between a tunnel interface and a crypto map D. shares a single profile between IKEv1 and IKEv2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Using the Next Generation Encryption technologies, which is the minimum acceptable encryption level to protect sensitive information? A. AES 92 bits B. AES 128 bits C. AES 256 bits D. AES 512 bits Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel?A. incorrect PSK B. crypto access list mismatch C. incorrect tunnel group D. crypto policy mismatch E. incorrect certificate Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 You have been using pre-shared keys for IKE authentication on your VPN. Your network has grown rapidly, and now you need to create VPNs with numerous IPsec peers. How can you enable scaling to numerous IPsec peers? A. Migrate to external CA-based digital certificate authentication. B. Migrate to a load-balancing server. C. Migrate to a shared license server. D. Migrate from IPsec to SSL VPN client extended authentication. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN? A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPN B. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15 A company has a Flex VPN solution for remote access and one of their Cisco any Connect remote clients is having trouble connecting property. Which command verifies that packets are being encrypted and decrypted? A. show crypto session active B. show crypto ikev2 stats C. show crypto ikev1 sa D. show crypto ikev2 sa E. show crypto session detail Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16 Which option is one of the difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN? A. flexvpn uses ikev2 and dmvpn can use ikev1 or ikev2 B. dmvpn can use ikev1 and ikev2 where flexvpn only uses ikev1 C. flexvpn can use ikev1 and ikev2 where dmvpn uses only ikev2 D. dmvp uses ikev1 and flexvpn use ikev3 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 An IOS SSL VPN is configured to forward TCP ports. A remote user cannot access the corporate FTP site with a Web browser. What is a possible reason for the failure? A. The user\\’s FTP application is not supported. B. The user is connecting to an IOS VPN gateway configured in Thin Client Mode. C. The user is connecting to an IOS VPN gateway configured in Tunnel Mode. D. The user\\’s operating system is not supported. Correct Answer: B http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ssl-vpn-client/70664-IOSthinclient.html Thin-Client SSL VPN (Port Forwarding) A remote client must download a small, Java-based applet for secure access of TCP applications that use static port numbers. UDP is not supported. Examples include access to POP3, SMTP, IMAP, SSH, and Telnet. The user needs local administrative privileges because changes are made to files on the local machine. This method of SSL VPN does not work with applications that use dynamic port assignments, for example, several FTP applications.
QUESTION 18 Which protocol must be enabled on the inside interface to use cluster encryption in SSL VPN load balancing? A. TLS B. DTLS C. IKEv2 D. ISAKMP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19 An engineer is configuring SSL VPN for remote access. A real-time application that is sensitive to packet delays will be used. Which feature should the engineer confirm is enabled to avoid latency and bandwidth problems associated with SSL connections? A. DTLS B. DPD C. SVC D. IKEv2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20 A temporary worker must use clientless SSL VPN with an SSH plug-in, in order to access the console of an internal corporate server, the projects.xyz.com server. For security reasons, the network security auditor insists that the temporary user is restricted to the one internal corporate server, 10.0.4.18. You are the network engineer who is responsible for the network access of the temporary user. What should you do to restrict SSH access to the one projects.xyz.com server? A. Configure access-list temp_user_acl extended permit TCP any host 10.0.4.18 eq 22. B. Configure access-list temp_user_acl standard permit host 10.0.4.18 eq 22. C. Configure access-list temp_acl webtype permit url ssh://10.0.4.18. D. Configure a plug-in SSH bookmark for host 10.0.4.18, and disable network browsing on the clientless SSL VPN portal of the temporary worker. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21 Refer to the exhibit. Which VPN solution does this configuration represent?
A. Cisco AnyConnect B. IPsec C. L2TP D. SSL VPN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 Which two GDOI encryption keys are used within a GET VPN network? (Choose two.) A. key encryption key B. group encryption key C. user encryption key D. traffic encryption key Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23 Which Cisco adaptive security appliance command can be used to view the count of all active VPN sessions? A. show vpn-sessiondb summary B. show crypto ikev1 sa C. show vpn-sessiondb ratio encryption D. show iskamp sa detail E. show crypto protocol statistics all Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial configuration shown, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) crypto ipsec transform-set MY_TRANSFORM esp-aes 128 esp-sha-hmac! crypto ipsec profile MYPROFILE set transform-set MY_TRANSFORM ! interface Tunnel0 ip unnumbered GigabitEthernet1/1 tunnel source GigabitEthernet1/1 tunnel destination 192.168.2.200 tunnel mode ipsec ipv4 tunnel protection ipsec profile MYPROFILE! ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel0 A. The tunnel will use the routing protocol configured for GigabitEthemet 1/1 for all tunnel communication with the peer. B. The IP route statement to reach the remote network behind the DMVPN peer is incorrect, it should be ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 tunnel 0. C. This is an example of a static point-to-point VTI tunnel. D. The tunnel will use esp-sha-hmac encryption in ESP tunnel mode. E. The tunnel will use 128-bit AES encryption in ESP tunnel mode. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 25 Which option describes the purpose of the command show derived-config interface virtual-access 1? A. It verifies that the virtual access interface is cloned correctly with per-user attributes. B. It verifies that the virtual template created the tunnel interface. C. It verifies that the virtual access interface is of type Ethernet. D. It verifies that the virtual access interface is used to create the tunnel interface. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 What URL do you use to download a packet capture file in a format which can be used by a packet analyzer? A. ftp:///capture// B. https://// C. https:///admin/capture//pcap D. https:////pcap Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27 Which two statements about the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN solution are true? (Choose two.) A. When a client connects to the Cisco ASA WebVPN portal and tries to access HTTP resources through the URL bar, the client uses the local DNS to perform FQDN resolution. B. The rewriter enable command under the global webvpn configuration enables the rewriter functionality because that feature is disabled by default. C. A Cisco ASA with an AnyConnect Premium Peers license can simultaneously allow Clientless SSL VPN sessions and AnyConnect client sessions. D. Content rewriter functionality in the Clientless SSL VPN portal is not supported on Apple mobile devices. E. Clientless SSLVPN provides Layer 3 connectivity into the secured network. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 28 Which feature is enabled by the use of NHRP in a DMVPN network? A. host routing with Reverse Route Injection B. BGP multiaccess C. host to NBMA resolution D. EIGRP redistribution Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29 Which Cisco IOS VPN feature simplifies IPsec VPN configuration and design by using on- demand virtual access interfaces that are cloned from a virtual template configuration? A. GET VPN B. dynamic VTI C. static VTI D. GRE tunnels E. GRE over IPsec tunnels F. DMVPN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30 Which command clears all crypto configuration from a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance? A. clear configure crypto B. clear configure crypto ipsec C. clear crypto map D. clear crypto ikev2 sa Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 Which VPN feature allows remote access clients to print documents to local network printers? A. Reverse Route Injection B. split tunneling C. loopback addressing D. dynamic virtual tunnels Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32 Which technology can rate-limit the number of tunnels on a DMVPN hub when system utilization is above a specified percentage? A. NHRP Event Publisher B. interface state control C. CAC D. NHRP Authentication E. ip nhrp connect Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33 When initiating a new SSL or TLS session, the client receives the server SSL certificate and validates it. After validating the server certificate, what does the client use the certificate for? A. The client and server use the server public key to encrypt the SSL session data. B. The server creates a separate session key and sends it to the client. The client decrypts the session key by using the server public key. C. The client and server switch to a DH key exchange to establish a session key. D. The client generates a random session key, encrypts it with the server public key, and then sends it to the server. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34 Which three actions can be applied to a traffic class within a type inspect policy map? (Choose three.) A. drop B. priority C. log D. pass E. inspect F. reset Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 35 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is running DMVPN with EIGRP, when the administrator looks at the routing table on spoken 1 it displays a route to the hub only. Which command is missing on the hub router, which includes spoke 2 and spoke 3 in the spoke 1 routing table?
A. no inverse arp B. neighbor (ip address) C. no ip split-horizon egrp 1 D. redistribute static Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36 A company\\’s remote locations connect to data centers via MPLS. A new request requires that unicast traffic that exist the remote location be encrypted. Which no tunneled technology can be used to satisfy this requirement? A. SSL B. GET VPN C. DMVPN D. EzVPN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37 Which type of communication in a FlexVPN implementation uses an NHRP shortcut? A. spoke to hub B. spoke to spoke C. hub to spoke D. hub to hub Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38 Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken when Cisco AnyConnect cannot establish an IKEv2 connection, while SSL works fine? (Choose two.) A. Verify that the primary protocol on the client machine is set to IPsec. B. Verify that AnyConnect is enabled on the correct interface. C. Verify that the IKEv2 protocol is enabled on the group policy. D. Verify that ASDM and AnyConnect are not using the same port. E. Verify that SSL and IKEv2 certificates are not referencing the same trustpoint. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit. The IKEv2 tunnel between Router1 and Router2 is failing during session establishment. Which action will allow the session to establish correctly?
A. The address command on Router2 must be narrowed down to a /32 mask. B. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be switched. C. The pre-shared key must be altered to use only lowercase letters. D. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be the same. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40 Which three parameters are specified in the isakmp (IKEv1) policy? (Choose three.) A. the hashing algorithm B. the authentication method C. the lifetime D. the session key E. the transform-set F. the peer Correct Answer: ABC
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