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Number of exam questions Exam name Release time From Previous issue
15 Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX) Sep 21, 2022 exam2pass Aug 26, 2022

New Question 1:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q1

Refer to the exhibit. A developer must construct an HTTP Request to use the XML API to set a Personal Meeting Room PIN for a given user. Which code completes the code to create the request?

A. xmlhttp.open("GET", "https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService");

B. xmlhttp.open("PATCH", "https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService");

C. xmlhttp.open("PUT", "https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService");

D. xmlhttp.open("POST", "https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService");

Correct Answer: D

The post method can be used for the HTTP request that sets up a personal meeting room PIN for a user.

New Question 2:

Which expression is a valid Webex Teams webhook filter?

A. [email protected]+roomId=abc123

B. [email protected]=abc123

C. [email protected]=abc123

D. [email protected],roomId=abc123

Correct Answer: C

You can also use more than one filter in a webhook. To use multiple filters, combine them with the "and" symbol. For example, to create a webhook that only sends notifications when a specific person performs an action in a specific room, such as sending a message or creating a membership, combine the personEmail and roomId filters.

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/guides/webhooks

New Question 3:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which code for blank lines 26, 27, and 28 gives invitees 900 seconds before the scheduled time to join the meeting, sets the meeting to last for 30 minutes, and sets the meeting timezone to Pacific US?

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q3-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://github.com/cisco-ie/webex-api-client

New Question 4:

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user "Read-only administrator privileges" in the Webex Control Hub.

B. Create an Integration app with all "spark_compliance" read scopes enabled.

C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API "SetUser" to update the user\'s "" value to "TRUE".

D. Configure the user as a "Compliance Officer" in the Webex Control Hub.

E. Create a Bot app with all "webex_compliance" read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/spark/esp/Webex-Teams-Security-Frequently-Asked-Questions.pdf

New Question 5:

What happens if a meeting is in progress when a DelMeeting request is sent in the Webex Meetings XML API?

A. The meeting host is notified and prompted to allow the meeting to be deleted.

B. The DelMeeting request drops all call-in users and deletes the meeting.

C. The DelMeeting request waits until the meeting is completed and then deletes the meeting.

D. The DelMeeting request results in an error.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://pdfslide.net/documents/webex-we.html (p.216)

New Question 6:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q6

Refer to the exhibit. What is the Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status code, based on this code snippet?

A. 401

B. 403

C. 429

D. 501

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/messages/get-message-details

New Question 7:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q7

Refer to the exhibit. On line 4, the script retrieves a context from a DOM element that was generated from a server-side component. How does that server-side component obtain the value for the `context\' element?

A. by opening a dialog asking the end-user to paste his personal access token

B. by completing an authorization code grant flow using the identifier and secret of an OAuth integration

C. by embedding the access token of a Bot account

D. by creating a guest token using the identifier and secret of a Guest Issuer application

Correct Answer: B

New Question 8:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q8

Refer to the exhibit. What causes the error message?

A. xapi must be enabled for promises.

B. HttpClient AllowInsecureHTTPS has not been enabled.

C. The NODE_TLS_REJECT_UNAUTHORIZED environment variable must be set to 0.

D. HttpClient must be changes to HttpsClient.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://help.webex.com/en-us/nthg6le/Sending-HTTP-Requests-from-a-Board-Room-or-Desk-Device

New Question 9:

A Webex Teams bot is deployed but soon it stops responding. Which two explanations are the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. A new webhook was created, which marks the old webhook as inactive.

B. The web server that is set to receive webhooks is not configured to return a 200 message. And the webhook is disabled.

C. The webhook secret is expired and must be refreshed.

D. The refresh token is not being used.

E. The bot owner regenerated the access token on developer.webex.com.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://developer.authorize.net/api/reference/features/webhooks.html

New Question 10:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q10

Refer to the exhibit. A snippet from the XSD schema of the Webex Meeting XML API LstRecordingResponse\' element is listed in the exhibit. Assuming that a variable namedresp\' exists that contains the XML response from a successful `LstRecording\' request, which code snippet correctly generates a simple report that lists meeting names and recording file download links?

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam answer q10

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 11:

With CE 9.8 and above, which two statements are correct when an application is sending and receiving data over a connection established with an xAPI interface? (Choose two.)

A. All Serial, SSH, and WebSockets can be used to send and receive data.

B. HttpClient can be used to send requests but not receive responses.

C. HttpFeedback is the only option to receive data.

D. The HttpClient command can be used to send requests and read responses over HTTP.

E. WebSockets is the only option to send and receive data.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce98/sx-mx-dx-room-kit-boards-customization-guide-ce98.pdf

New Question 12:

Which element is needed to build a Web application that authenticates Webex users and can post messages under the user\'s identity?

A. OAuth integration configured with the `messages_write\' scope

B. bot access token

C. Guest Issuer application

D. self-signed certificate that is created by a public authority

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/blog/real-world-walkthrough-of-building-an-oauth-webex-integration

New Question 13:

Which two filters are valid for limiting a webhook? (Choose two.)

A. roomId=

B. personId!=

C. spaceId=

D. personId=$spaceId=

E. personId=$roomId=

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/guides/webhooks

New Question 14:

Which Webex Teams webhook resource type indicates that a user interacted with a card?

A. buttonActions

B. attachmentActions

C. webhookCardActions

D. cardActions

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/guides/webhooks

New Question 15:

CCDP 300-920 dumps exam q15

Refer to the exhibit. An end user reports that the speed dial button is not working on their Webex Device, and when loading into the Macro Editor, this error was presented. On which line is the incorrect syntax?

A. line 4

B. line 14

C. line 15

D. line 22

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/telepresence-and-video/ce9-2-1-macro-framework-discussions/td-p/3220093

...

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New Question 1:

Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting to the Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering

B. Connection Reputation Filtering

C. Talos Reputation Filtering

D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

Correct Answer: A


New Question 2:

Which benefit does enabling external spam quarantine on Cisco SMA provide?

A. ability to back up spam quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console

B. access to the spam quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete

C. ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate

D. ability to consolidate spam quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESA to one central console

Correct Answer: D


New Question 3:

What are the two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject

B. work queue

C. action

D. delivery

E. quarantine

Correct Answer: BD


New Question 4:

Which two action types are performed by Cisco ESA message filters? (Choose two.)

A. non-final actions

B. filter actions

C. discard actions

D. final actions

E. quarantine actions

Correct Answer: AD


New Question 5:

Which setting affects the aggressiveness of spam detection?

A. protection level

B. spam threshold

C. spam timeout

D. maximum depth of recursion scan

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118220-technote-esa-00.html


New Question 6:

What is the order of virus scanning when multilayer antivirus scanning is configured?

A. The default engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

B. The Sophos engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

C. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the default engine scans for viruses second.

D. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the Sophos engine scans for viruses second.

Correct Answer: C

If you configure multi-layer anti-virus scanning, the Cisco appliance performs virus scanning with the McAfee engine first and the Sophos engine second. It scans messages using both engines unless the McAfee engine detects a virus. If the McAfee engine detects a virus, the Cisco appliance performs the anti-virus actions (repairing, quarantining, etc.) defined for the mail policy.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_01011.html


New Question 7:

Which action must be taken before a custom quarantine that is being used can be deleted?

A. Delete the quarantine that is assigned to a filter.

B. Delete the quarantine that is not assigned to a filter.

C. Delete only the unused quarantine.

D. Remove the quarantine from the message action of a filter.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011111.html


New Question 8:

What is the maximum message size that can be configured for encryption on the Cisco ESA?

A. 20 MB

B. 25 MB

C. 15 MB

D. 30 MB

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/117972-technote-esa-00.html


New Question 9:

An analyst creates a new content dictionary to use with Forged Email Detection. Which entry will be added to the dictionary?

A. mycompany.com

B. Alpha Beta

C. ^Alpha\ Beta$

D. [email protected]

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/email-security-appliance/whitepaper_C11-737596.html


New Question 10:

Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist?

A. message filter

B. antivirus scanning

C. outbreak filter

D. antispam scanning

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/214269-filter-to-handle-messages-that-skipped-d.html


New Question 11:

Which two query types are available when an LDAP profile is configured? (Choose two.)

A. proxy consolidation

B. user

C. recursive

D. group

E. routing

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011010.html


New Question 12:

Which action is a valid fallback when a client certificate is unavailable during SMTP authentication on Cisco ESA?

A. LDAP Query

B. SMTP AUTH

C. SMTP TLS

D. LDAP BIND

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011011.html


New Question 13:

Email encryption is configured on a Cisco ESA that uses CRES.

Which action is taken on a message when CRES is unavailable?

A. It is required.

B. It is sent in clear text.

C. It is dropped and an error message is sent to the sender.

D. It is encrypted by a Cisco encryption appliance.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/117863-configure-esa-00.html


New Question 14:

Which two features of Cisco Email Security are added to a Sender Group to protect an organization against email threats? (Choose two.)

A. NetFlow

B. geolocation-based filtering

C. heuristic-based filtering

D. senderbase reputation filtering

E. content disarm and reconstruction

Correct Answer: CD


New Question 15:

Which two steps configure Forged Email Detection? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a content dictionary with executive email addresses.

B. Configure a filter to use the Forged Email Detection rule and dictionary.

C. Configure a filter to check the Header From value against the Forged Email Detection dictionary.

D. Enable Forged Email Detection on the Security Services page.

E. Configure a content dictionary with friendly names.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://explore.cisco.com/esa-feature-enablement/user-guide-for-async-11

...

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The latest updated Cisco 300-710 exam questions are shared online

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Online practice for some of the latest Cisco 300-710 exam questions available online:

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the steps to restore an automatic device registration failure on the standby Cisco FMC from the left into the correct order on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


New Question 2:

What is the result of enabling Cisco FTD clustering?

A. For the dynamic routing feature, if the master unit fails, the newly elected master unit maintains all existing connections.

B. Integrated Routing and Bridging are supported on the master unit.

C. Site-to-site VPN functionality is limited to the master unit, and all VPN connections are dropped if the master unit fails.

D. All Firepower appliances can support Cisco FTD clustering.

Check answer ↴


New Question 3:

Which two conditions are necessary for high availability to function between two Cisco FTD devices? (Choose two.)

A. The units must be the same version

B. Both devices can be part of a different group that must be in the same domain when configured within the FMC.

C. The units must be different models if they are part of the same series.

D. The units must be configured only for firewall routed mode.

E. The units must be the same model.

Check answer ↴


New Question 4:

On the advanced tab under inline set properties, which allows interfaces to emulate a passive interface?

A. transparent inline mode

B. TAP mode

C. strict TCP enforcement

D. propagate link state

Check answer ↴


New Question 5:

What are the minimum requirements to deploy a managed device inline?

A. inline interfaces, security zones, MTU, and mode

B. passive interface, MTU, and mode

C. inline interfaces, MTU, and mode

D. passive interface, security zone, MTU, and mode

Check answer ↴


New Question 6:

What is the difference between an inline and an inline tap on Cisco Firepower?

A. Inline tap mode can send a copy of the traffic to another device.

B. Inline tap mode does full packet capture.

C. Inline mode cannot do SSL decryption.

D. Inline mode can drop malicious traffic.

Check answer ↴


New Question 7:

With Cisco Firepower Threat Defense software, which interface mode must be configured to passively receive traffic that passes through the appliance?

A. inline set

B. passive

C. routed

D. inline tap

Check answer ↴


New Question 8:

Which two deployment types support high availability? (Choose two.)

A. transparent

B. routed

C. clustered

D. intra-chassis multi-instance

E. virtual appliance in public cloud

Check answer ↴


New Question 9:

Which protocol establishes network redundancy in a switched Firepower device deployment?

A. STP

B. HSRP

C. GLBP

D. VRRP

Check answer ↴


New Question 10:

Which interface type allows packets to be dropped?

A. passive

B. inline

C. ERSPAN

D. TAP

Check answer ↴


New Question 11:

Which Cisco Firepower Threat Defense, which two interface settings are required when configuring a routed interface? (Choose two.)

A. Redundant Interface

B. EtherChannel

C. Speed

D. Media Type

E. Duplex

Check answer ↴


New Question 12:

Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported in Firepower Threat Defense without using FlexConfig? (Choose two.)

A. EIGRP

B. OSPF

C. static routing

D. IS-IS

E. BGP

Check answer ↴


New Question 13:

Which policy rule is included in the deployment of a local DMZ during the initial deployment of a Cisco NGFW through the Cisco FMC GUI?

A. a default DMZ policy for which only a user can change the IP addresses.

B. deny IP any

C. no policy rule is included

D. permit IP any

Check answer ↴


New Question 14:

What are two application layer preprocessors? (Choose two.)

A. CIFS

B. IMAP

C. SSL

D. DNP3

E. ICMP

Check answer ↴


New Question 15:

Which two OSPF routing features are configured in Cisco FMC and propagated to Cisco FTD? (Choose two.)

A. OSPFv2 with IPv6 capabilities

B. virtual links

C. SHA authentication to OSPF packets

D. area boundary router type 1 LSA filtering

E. MD5 authentication to OSPF packets

Check answer ↴

...

Verify the answer:

Numbers: Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10 Q11 Q12 Q13 Q14 Q15
Answers: IMAGE C AE D C A B AB A B CE BE C BC BE

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The latest update Cisco 300-430 free dumps from Lead4Pass 300-430 dumps

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The answer is obtained at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

A wireless engineer must implement a corporate wireless network for a large company in the most efficient way
possible. The wireless network must support 32 VLANs for 300 employees in different departments. Which solution
must the engineer choose?

A. Configure a second WLC to support half of the APs in the deployment.
B. Configure one single SSID and implement Cisco ISE for VLAN assignment according to different user roles.
C. Configure different AP groups to support different VLANs, so that all of the WLANs can be broadcast on both radios.
D. Configure 16 WLANs to be broadcast on the 2.4-GHz band and 16 WLANs to be broadcast on the 5.0- GHz band.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q1

 

QUESTION 2

After receiving an alert about a rogue AP, a network engineer logs into Cisco Prime Infrastructure and looks at the floor
map where the AP that detected the rogue is located. The map is synchronized with a mobility services engine that
determines that the rogue device is actually inside the campus. The engineer determines that the rogue is a security
threat and decides to stop if from broadcasting inside the enterprise wireless network. What is the fastest way to disable the rogue?

A. Go to the location where the rogue device is indicated to be and disable the power.
B. Create an SSID similar to the rogue to disable clients from connecting to it.
C. Update the status of the rogue in Cisco Prime Infrastructure to contained.
D. Classify the rogue as malicious in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.

 

QUESTION 3

An engineer is implementing profiling for BYOD devices using Cisco ISE. When using a distributed model, which
persona must the engineer configure with the profiling service?

A. Policy Services Node
B. Device Admin Node
C. Monitor Node
D. Primary Admin Node

 

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q4

An engineer deployed a Cisco WLC using local EAP. Users who are configured for EAP-PEAP cannot connect to the
network. Based on the local EAP debug controller provided, why is the client unable to connect?

A. The client is falling to accept certificate.
B. The Cisco WLC is configured for the incorrect date.
C. The user is using invalid credentials.

 

QUESTION 5

An engineer must track guest traffic flow using the WLAN infrastructure. Which Cisco CMX feature must be configured
and used to accomplish this tracking?

A. analytics
B. connect and engage
C. presence
D. detect and locate.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q5

 

QUESTION 6

Which two configurations are applied on the WLC to enable multicast, check multicast stream subscriptions, and stream content only to subscribed clients? (Choose two)

A. Enable IGMP snooping
B. Set the IGMP timeout to 180 seconds
C. Enable broadcast forwarding
D. Enable 802.3x flow control mode.
E. Set the AP multicast to 238.255.255.255

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/81671-multicast-wlc-lap.html

 

QUESTION 7

An engineer just added anew MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure and wants to synchronize the MSE with the Cisco 5520
WLC, which is located behind a firewall in a DMZ. It is noticed that NMSP messages are failing between the two
devices. Which traffic must be allowed on the firewall to ensure that the MSE and WLC can communicate using NMSP?

A. TCP 1613
B. UDP 16113
C. TCP 16113
D. UDP 1613

hnps:\\'/vvw\vxJsco.com\\'c/en;us\\'support;docsAvJreless\\'5500-series-wJreless-controllers/113344- cuwn-ppm html
https:\\'/mrncciewxom/2014/09/25/what-is-nmsp/ https:\\'/mvwxiscoxomx/en\\'us\\'support/docs\\'wireless\\'mo

 

QUESTION 8

The IT manager is asking the wireless team to get a report for all guest user associations during the past two weeks. In
which two formats can Cisco Prime save this report? (Choose two.)

A. CSV
B. PDF
C. XLS
D. DOC
E. plain text

cisco 300-430 exam questions q8

 

QUESTION 9

What is the default NMSP echo interval between Cisco MSE and a Wireless LAN Controller?

A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds

 

QUESTION 10

What must be configured on the Global Configuration page of the WLC for an access point to use 802.1x to authenticate to the wired infrastructure?

A. supplicant credentials
B. RADIUS shared secret
C. local access point credentials
D. TACACS server IP address.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q10

 

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q11

A network administrator deploys the DHCP profiler service in two ISE servers: 10.3.10.101 and 10.3.10.102. All BYOD
devices connecting to WLAN on VLAN63 have been incorrectly profiled and are assigned as unknown profiled
endpoints. Which action efficiently rectifies the issue according to Cisco recommendations?

A. Nothing needed to be added on the Cisco WLC or VLAN interface. The ISE configuration must be fixed.
B. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC.
C. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC and run the ip helper-address command under the VLAN interface to point to
DHCP and the two ISE servers.
D. Keep DHCP proxy enabled on the Cisco WLC and define helper-address under the VLAN interface to point to the
two ISE servers.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/110865-dhcp-wlc.html

 

QUESTION 12

Which two steps are needed to complete integration of the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure and be able to track the location of clients/rogues on maps? (Choose two.)

A. Synchronize access points with the MSE.
B. Add the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure using the CLI credentials.
C. Add the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure using the Cisco Prime Infrastructure communication credentials
configured during set up.
D. Apply a valid license for Wireless Intrusion Prevention System.
E. Apply a valid license for location tracking.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/prime/infrastructure/33/user/guide/bk_CiscoPrimeInfrastructure_3_3_0_UserGuide/bk_CiscoPrimeInfrastructure_3_3_0_UserGuide_chapter_0100110.html

 

QUESTION 13

An engineer has implemented advanced location services for a retail wireless deployment. The marketing department
wants to collect user demographic information in exchange for guest WLAN access and to have a customized portal per location hosted by the provider. Which social connector must be tied into Cisco CMX to provide this service?

A. Gmail
B. Google+
C. Facebook
D. MySpace

Verify answer:

Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10 Q11 Q12 Q13
B C A A C AC C AB B B C CE C

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Cisco 300-820 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Traversal Server
B. Advanced Networking
C. Device Provisioning
D. Rich Media Sessions
E. TURN Relays
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Core can use private CA signed certificate.
B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store.
C. Expressway must generate certificate signing request.
D. Expressway Edge must use public CA signed certificate.
E. The Jabber client can work with public or private CA signed certificate.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two outbound connections should an administrator configure on the internal firewall? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP: TCP 7400
B. SIP: TCP 7001
C. SIP TCP 5061
D. Media: UDP 36012 to 59999
E. HTTPS: TCP 8443
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X12-5/CiscoExpressway-IP-Port-Usage-for-Firewall-Traversal-Deployment-Guide-X12-5.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
Which configuration is required when implementing Mobile and Remote Access on Cisco Expressway?
A. IPS
B. SAML authentication
C. Cisco Unified CM publisher address
D. SSO
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.)
A. d20d16d20d22
B. 2091652010224
C. 209165200225
D. d209d165d200d224
E. 209165200224
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 6
When an Expressway-E is configured for static NAT, which Session Description Protocol attribute is modified to reflect
the NAT address?
A. SDP b-line
B. SIP record route
C. SDP c-line
D. SDP m-line
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which role does Call Policy play when preventing toll fraud on Expressways?
A. It controls which calls are allowed, which calls are rejected, and which calls are redirected to a different destination.
B. It changes the calling and called number on a call.
C. It changes the audio protocol used by a call through Expressways.
D. It changes the audio codec used in a call through Expressways.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
When designing the call control on a Cisco Expressway Core, which is the sequence of dial plan functions?
A. transforms, CPL, user policy, search rules
B. search rules, zones, local zones
C. DNS zone, local zone, search rules
D. search rules, transforms
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?
A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.
B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.
C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.
D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What is a key configuration requirement for Hybrid Message Service High Availability deployment with multiple IM and
Presence clusters?
A. You must have the Intercluster Sync Agent working across your IM and Presence clusters.
B. You must have the Intercluster Lookup Service working across all of your IM and Presence clusters.
C. Your IM and Presence Service clusters must have Multiple Device Messaging disabled.
D. AXL service should be activated only on the publisher of each IM and Presence cluster.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
How does an administrator configure an Expressway to make sure an external caller cannot reach a specific internal
address?
A. add the specific URI in the firewall section of the Expressway and block it
B. block the call with a call policy rule in the Expressway-E
C. add a search rule route all calls to the Cisco UCM
D. configure FAC for the destination alias on the Expressway
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages.
What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices?
A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space.
B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages.
C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path.
D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of a transform in the Expressway server?
A. A transform has the function as a neighbor zone in the Expressway. It creates a connection with another server.
B. A transform changes the audio codec when the call goes through the Expressway.
C. A transform is used to route calls to a destination.
D. A transform changes an alias that matches certain criteria into another alias.
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco 300-810 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two methods does Cisco Jabber use for contact searching in an on-premises deployment model? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. XMPP
C. UDS
D. LDAP
E. SIP
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/presence.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which function of the Cisco IM and Presence high availability solution is true?
A. When the server has been restored to a normal state, user sessions remain on the backup server.
B. When an event takes place, the end user sessions are not moved from the failed server to the backup.
C. When the server has been restored, the server automatically fails back.
D. When a high availability event takes place, the end user sessions are moved from the failed server to the backup.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-im-presenceservice/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which service must be activated on Cisco Unity Connection to utilize LDAP synchronization?
A. Cisco Tomcat
B. Cisco Sync Agent
C. Cisco DirSync
D. Cisco RIS Data Collector
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/10x/administration/guide/10xcucsagx/10xcucsag120.html

 

QUESTION 4
Which component of SAML SSO defines the transport mechanism that is used to deliver the SAML messages between
entities?
A. profiles
B. metadata
C. assertions
D. bindings
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which SAML 2.0 profile is supported by Cisco UCM, Cisco Unified IM and Presence, and Unity Connection version 10.x
and above?
A. single logout
B. web browser SSO
C. name identifier management
D. identity provider discovery
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q6

Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in
the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is
configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this
issue?
A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Feature Services.
C. Restart XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Network Services.
D. Activate XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsol-chat-00.html

 

QUESTION 7
What are two Cisco Jabber 12.6 on-premises deployment types that can be run on a Windows- enabled PC? (Choose
two.)
A. Contact Center Agent
B. IM-only
C. multicloud-based
D. Full UC
E. cloud-based
Correct Answer: BD
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/12_6/cjab_b_on-prem-deployment-ciscojabber_12-6.pdf

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q8

Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to
Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in
the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in?
A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp.
B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM.
C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong.
D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/ta-p/3143446

 

QUESTION 9
Which two protocols does the Cisco IM Presence service use to federate with external domains? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP
B. SNMP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
E. SMPP
Correct Answer: AC
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/interdomain_federation/11_5_1/cup0_b_interdomain-federation-guide-imp-115.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.cisco 300-810 questions q10

Which statement is true?
A. If the IMandP node in sub-cluster-1 goes down, then users assigned to it are randomly split between the two
remaining subclusters.
B. The administrator must add one node to each subcluster for high availability.
C. IMandP nodes in each subscluster must be configured from the same OVA template.
D. Each Cisco IMandP subcluster must have the same number of nodes.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring DNS for service discovery in a Jabber deployment for on-premises clients. Which snippet will
complete the SRV record name _tcp.example.com?
A. _cisco_uds
B. _collab_edge
C. _xmpp.server
D. _xmpp-client
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2016/pdf/BRKCOL-2344.pdf

 

QUESTION 12
Which SAML component specifies the mapping of SAML assertion protocol message exchanges with standard
messaging formats or communication protocols such as SOAP exchanges?
A. SAML binding
B. SAML assertion
C. SAML profiles
D. SAML protocol
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_Assertion_Markup_Language

 

QUESTION 13
SAML SSO is enabled in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What happens when a browser- based client
attempts to access a protected resource on a service provider?
A. The browser follows the redirect and issues an HTTPS GET request to the IdP.
B. The IdP checks for a valid browser session.
C. The service provider generates a SAML authentication request.
D. The SAML request is maintained as a query parameter in the GET request.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/SAML_SSO_deployment_guide/12_5_1/cucm_b_samlsso-deployment-guide-12_5/cucm_b_saml-sso-deployment-guide-12_5_chapter_01.html


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Latest updates Cisco 500-490 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation.
B. ISE plays a critical role in SD-Access.
C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it
moves.
D. ISE can provide data about when a specific device connected to the network.
E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. It distributed deployments, failover from primary to secondary Policy Administration Nodes happens automatically.
B. The number of logs that ISE can retain is determined by your disk space.
C. ISE supports IPv6 downloadable ACLs.
D. ISE can detected endpoints whose addresses have been translated via NAT.
E. ISE supports up to 100 Policy Services Nodes.
F. In two-nodes standalone ISE deployments, failover must be done manually.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\'s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up.
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you.
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration.
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which option will help build your customers platform during the discovery phase?
A. business case
B. detailed design
C. POV report
D. high-level design
E. PO
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How would Cisco ISE handle authentication for your printer that does not have a supplicant?
A. ISE would not authenticate the printer as printers are not subject to ISE authentication.
B. ISE would authenticate the printer using 802.1X authentication.
C. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAB.
D. ISE would authenticate the printer using web authentication.
E. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAC RADIUS authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs
B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices
C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set
D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks
E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
What are three ways in which Cisco ISE learns information about devices? (Choose three.)
A. user authentication to the ISE
B. SMTP agents
C. RPC mechanism via HTTPS
D. traffic generated by the device
E. network servers the device has accessed
F. RADIUS attributes
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 8
Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible.
B. Show the customer how to integrate ISE into DNA Center at the end of the demo.
C. Focus on business benefits.
D. Keep the demo at a high level.
E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco product were incorporated into Cisco ISE between ISE releases 2.0 and 2.3?
A. Cisco ASA
B. Cisco ESA
C. Cisco ACS
D. Cisco WSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.)
A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SE, you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than contributing to demo
innovation.
B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations.
C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details.
D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach.
E. During a demo, you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. providing VPN access for any type of device
B. providing information about every device that touches the network
C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection
D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices
E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies
F. allocating resources
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose two.)
A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus
B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements
C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership
D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling
E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRE tunnel to a mobility controller for policy
and application visibility
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\'s discovery process? (Choose two.)
A. Establishing credibility with the customer
B. Working with the customer to develop a reference architecture
C. Referencing the PPDIOO model to effectively facilitate the discussion
D. Gathering information about the current state of the customer\\'s network environment
E. Mapping Cisco innovation to customer\\'s needs
Correct Answer: AD

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Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing?
A. It permits all traffic without logging.
B. It drops all traffic.
C. It inspects all traffic.
D. It permits and logs all traffic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall?
A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity.
B. To protect one virtual network segment from another.
C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements.
D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session.
E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks.
Correct Answer: A
The term personal firewall typically applies to the basic software that can control Layer 3 and Layer 4 access to client
machines. HIPS provides several features that offer more robust security than a traditional personal firewall, such as
host intrusion prevention and protection against spyware, viruses, worms, Trojans, and other types of malware. Source:
Cisco Official Certification Guide, Personal Firewalls and Host Intrusion Prevention Systems, p.499

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
Which protocol offers data integrity, encryption, authentication, and antireplay functions for IPsec VPN?
A. AH protocol
B. ESP protocol
C. IKEv2 protocol
D. IKEv1 protocol
Correct Answer: B
IP Security Protocol—Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is a security protocol used to provide confidentiality (encryption), data origin
authentication, integrity, optional antireplay service, and limited traffic flow confidentiality by defeating traffic flow
analysis.
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=24833andamp;seqNum=3

QUESTION 5
Which ports need to be active for AAA server to integrate with Microsoft AD
A. 445 and 8080
B. 443 and 389
C. 445 and 389
D. 443 and 8080
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
Split tunneling is a computer networking concept which allows a mobile user to access dissimilar security domains like a
public network (e.g., the Internet) and a local LAN or WAN at the same time, using the same or different network
connections. This connection state is usually facilitated through the simultaneous use of, a Local Area Network (LAN)
Network Interface Card (NIC), radio NIC, Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) NIC, and VPN client software
application without the benefit of access control. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Split_tunneling

QUESTION 7
You are configuring a NAT rule on a Cisco ASA. Which description of a mapped interface is true?
A. It is mandatory for all firewall modes.
B. It is mandatory for identity NAT only.
C. It is optional in transparent mode.
D. It is optional in routed mode.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which is a key security component of MDM deployment?
A. Using the network-specific installer package
B. Using self-signed certificates to validate the server – generate a self-signed certificate to connect to the server (Deployed
certificates; Issued certificate to the server likely)
C. Using application tunnel
D. Using MS-CHAPv2 as primary EAP method
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
When is the best time to perform an anti-virus signature update?
A. Every time a new update is available.
B. When the local scanner has detected a new virus.
C. When a new virus is discovered in the wild.
D. When the system detects a browser hook.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A
Firewalls are generally designed to be on the network perimeter and can handle dropping a lot of the non- legitimate
traffic (attacks, scans, etc.) very quickly at the ingress interface, often in hardware. An IDS/IPS are, generally speaking,
doing more deep packet inspections and that is a much more computationally expensive undertaking. For that reason,
we prefer to filter what gets to it with the firewall line of defense before engaging the IDS/IPS to analyze the traffic flow.
Source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/discussion/12428821/correct-placement-idsips- network-architecture

QUESTION 11
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A
Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST) is a protocol proposal by Cisco Systems as a replacement for
LEAP. The protocol was designed to address the weaknesses of LEAP while preserving the "lightweight"
implementation. Use of server certificates is optional in EAP-FAST. EAP-FAST uses a Protected Access Credential
(PAC) to establish a TLS tunnel in which client credentials are verified. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extensible_Authentication_Protocol

QUESTION 12
What are the primary attack methods of VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP hopping
B. Switch spoofing
C. CAM-table overflow
D. Double tagging
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which command do you enter to enable authentication for OSPF on an interface?
A. router(config-if)#ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 CISCOPASS
B. router(config-router)#area 0 authentication message-digest
C. router(config-router)#ip ospf authentication-key CISCOPASS
D. router(config-if)#ip ospf authentication message-digest
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which statement about threat actors is true?
A. They are any company assets that are threatened.
B. They are any assets that are threatened.
C. They are perpetrators of attacks.
D. They are victims of attacks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data normalization
B. data availability
C. data protection
D. data signature
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are the three metrics, or andquot; scores,andquot; of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System
(CVSS)? (Select all that apply.)
A. Baseline score
B. Base score
C. Environmental score
D. Temporal score
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable
component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two potions are the primary 5-tuple components? (Choose two)
A. destination IP address
B. header length
C. sequence number
D. checksum
E. source IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the Exhibit. A customer reports that they cannot access your organization\\'s website. Which option is a
possible reason that the customer cannot access the website?exam2pass 210-255 exam question q6

A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial-of-service.
B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet censors.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are not components of the 5-tuple of flow in NetFlow? (Select all that apply.)
A. Source IP address
B. Flow record ID
C. Gateway
D. Source port
E. Destination port
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which CVSS metric describes the conditions that are beyond the attacker\\'s control that must exist to exploit the
vulnerability?
A. User interaction
B. Attack vector
C. attack complexity
D. privileges required
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which signature type results in a legitime alert been dismissed?
A. True negative
B. False negative
C. True Positive
D. False Positive
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following Linux file systems not only supports journaling but also modifies important data structures of the
file system, such as the ones destined to store the file data for better performance and reliability?
A. GRUB
B. LILO
C. Ext4
D. FAT32
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high. Which potential result is true?exam2pass 210-255 exam question q12

A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is one of the main goals of the CSIRT?
A. To configure the organization\\'s firewalls
B. To monitor the organization\\'s IPS devices
C. To minimize and control the damage associated with incidents, provide guidance for mitigation, and work to prevent
future incidents
D. To hire security professionals who will be part of the InfoSec team of the organization.
Correct Answer: C

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