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QUESTION 1

A wireless engineer must implement a corporate wireless network for a large company in the most efficient way
possible. The wireless network must support 32 VLANs for 300 employees in different departments. Which solution
must the engineer choose?

A. Configure a second WLC to support half of the APs in the deployment.
B. Configure one single SSID and implement Cisco ISE for VLAN assignment according to different user roles.
C. Configure different AP groups to support different VLANs, so that all of the WLANs can be broadcast on both radios.
D. Configure 16 WLANs to be broadcast on the 2.4-GHz band and 16 WLANs to be broadcast on the 5.0- GHz band.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q1

 

QUESTION 2

After receiving an alert about a rogue AP, a network engineer logs into Cisco Prime Infrastructure and looks at the floor
map where the AP that detected the rogue is located. The map is synchronized with a mobility services engine that
determines that the rogue device is actually inside the campus. The engineer determines that the rogue is a security
threat and decides to stop if from broadcasting inside the enterprise wireless network. What is the fastest way to disable the rogue?

A. Go to the location where the rogue device is indicated to be and disable the power.
B. Create an SSID similar to the rogue to disable clients from connecting to it.
C. Update the status of the rogue in Cisco Prime Infrastructure to contained.
D. Classify the rogue as malicious in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.

 

QUESTION 3

An engineer is implementing profiling for BYOD devices using Cisco ISE. When using a distributed model, which
persona must the engineer configure with the profiling service?

A. Policy Services Node
B. Device Admin Node
C. Monitor Node
D. Primary Admin Node

 

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q4

An engineer deployed a Cisco WLC using local EAP. Users who are configured for EAP-PEAP cannot connect to the
network. Based on the local EAP debug controller provided, why is the client unable to connect?

A. The client is falling to accept certificate.
B. The Cisco WLC is configured for the incorrect date.
C. The user is using invalid credentials.

 

QUESTION 5

An engineer must track guest traffic flow using the WLAN infrastructure. Which Cisco CMX feature must be configured
and used to accomplish this tracking?

A. analytics
B. connect and engage
C. presence
D. detect and locate.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q5

 

QUESTION 6

Which two configurations are applied on the WLC to enable multicast, check multicast stream subscriptions, and stream content only to subscribed clients? (Choose two)

A. Enable IGMP snooping
B. Set the IGMP timeout to 180 seconds
C. Enable broadcast forwarding
D. Enable 802.3x flow control mode.
E. Set the AP multicast to 238.255.255.255

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/81671-multicast-wlc-lap.html

 

QUESTION 7

An engineer just added anew MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure and wants to synchronize the MSE with the Cisco 5520
WLC, which is located behind a firewall in a DMZ. It is noticed that NMSP messages are failing between the two
devices. Which traffic must be allowed on the firewall to ensure that the MSE and WLC can communicate using NMSP?

A. TCP 1613
B. UDP 16113
C. TCP 16113
D. UDP 1613

hnps:\\’/vvw\vxJsco.com\\’c/en;us\\’support;docsAvJreless\\’5500-series-wJreless-controllers/113344- cuwn-ppm html
https:\\’/mrncciewxom/2014/09/25/what-is-nmsp/ https:\\’/mvwxiscoxomx/en\\’us\\’support/docs\\’wireless\\’mo

 

QUESTION 8

The IT manager is asking the wireless team to get a report for all guest user associations during the past two weeks. In
which two formats can Cisco Prime save this report? (Choose two.)

A. CSV
B. PDF
C. XLS
D. DOC
E. plain text

cisco 300-430 exam questions q8

 

QUESTION 9

What is the default NMSP echo interval between Cisco MSE and a Wireless LAN Controller?

A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds

 

QUESTION 10

What must be configured on the Global Configuration page of the WLC for an access point to use 802.1x to authenticate to the wired infrastructure?

A. supplicant credentials
B. RADIUS shared secret
C. local access point credentials
D. TACACS server IP address.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q10

 

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q11

A network administrator deploys the DHCP profiler service in two ISE servers: 10.3.10.101 and 10.3.10.102. All BYOD
devices connecting to WLAN on VLAN63 have been incorrectly profiled and are assigned as unknown profiled
endpoints. Which action efficiently rectifies the issue according to Cisco recommendations?

A. Nothing needed to be added on the Cisco WLC or VLAN interface. The ISE configuration must be fixed.
B. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC.
C. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC and run the ip helper-address command under the VLAN interface to point to
DHCP and the two ISE servers.
D. Keep DHCP proxy enabled on the Cisco WLC and define helper-address under the VLAN interface to point to the
two ISE servers.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/110865-dhcp-wlc.html

 

QUESTION 12

Which two steps are needed to complete integration of the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure and be able to track the location of clients/rogues on maps? (Choose two.)

A. Synchronize access points with the MSE.
B. Add the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure using the CLI credentials.
C. Add the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure using the Cisco Prime Infrastructure communication credentials
configured during set up.
D. Apply a valid license for Wireless Intrusion Prevention System.
E. Apply a valid license for location tracking.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/prime/infrastructure/33/user/guide/bk_CiscoPrimeInfrastructure_3_3_0_UserGuide/bk_CiscoPrimeInfrastructure_3_3_0_UserGuide_chapter_0100110.html

 

QUESTION 13

An engineer has implemented advanced location services for a retail wireless deployment. The marketing department
wants to collect user demographic information in exchange for guest WLAN access and to have a customized portal per location hosted by the provider. Which social connector must be tied into Cisco CMX to provide this service?

A. Gmail
B. Google+
C. Facebook
D. MySpace

Verify answer:

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BCAACACCABBBCCEC

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[2018-2021 New Citrix Dumps] High Quality Citrix CCE-V 1Y0-401 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Demo Free Shared

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1Y0-401 dumps
QUESTION 1
Why would the architect choose XenServer MPIO when configuring bonded network interfaces for guest VM networks?
A. It provides load balancing of VM traffic across multiple physical NIC interfaces at a per guest basis, and offers improved distribution of traffic across physical interfaces in the bond.
B. It sends all guest VM traffic in the bond to an active interface, which provides the best distribution of network load.
C. It uses a hashing algorithm, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
D. It uses a round robin load-balancing policy, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
How should the architect recommend that the target devices boot from the Provisioning Services server?
A. By configuring a Windows deployment server
B. By using SFTP
C. By using FTP
D. By using DHCP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which option requires the fewest components to implement a fault-tolerant, load-balanced solution for end- user access at each datacenter?
A. Two StoreFront servers in a single StoreFront server group.
B. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to a single StoreFront server.
C. Three NetScalers in a cluster, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
D. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Why is a design with 12 NetScaler appliances, in which each datacenter deploys an HA pair in the internal network for Gateway traffic and an HA pair in the DMZ for load balancing, the best remote access design? 1Y0-401 dumps
A. It allows end users to connect to their primary datacenter through a secure, reliable, and cost-effective solution.
B. It provides redundancy, while optimizing external WAN traffic.
C. It segments the Gateway and load-balancing features of the NetScaler appliances.
D. It allows for the expected expansion of remote access usage and provides SSL VPN functionality for future needs.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario: CGE acquires a small energy company that is running MGMT, a proprietary 16-bit application. A Citrix Architect is tasked with deploying this application to the Executives/Management end-user group. The CIO mandates that a FlexCast model must be chosen that resembles this end-user group\’s existing delivery strategy.
It is important that a single-image deployment is utilized and that management effort is kept to a minimum for the update process. The availability of a fast rollback plan must also be available after upgrades, since it can often result in system instability.
Why is deploying MGMT in a Hosted Shared environment on Windows Server 2008 R2 with Machine Creation Services the best solution?
A. It offers a faster change process.
B. End users are already comfortable working in a shared environment.
C. It prevents XenApp server crashes.
D. It enables faster rollbacks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
CGE decided that all end users must use two-factor authentication to connect remotely to the Citrix environment. Which two sites will be able to support this requirement for Citrix Receiver for iOS and Android? (Choose two.)
A. Tulsa
B. Jurong
C. London
D. Odessa
E. Houston
F. Aberdeen
G. Makassar
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
Why is separating the workloads by roles to reflect the OU structure of Active Directory, creating a resource pool comprising a maximum of 24 XenServer hosts, and implementing a storage repository for virtual disks, XenMotion, high availability, and disaster recovery backups the best design solution?
A. It ensures the logical separation of infrastructure and virtual desktop workloads, and facilitates management and expansion capabilities.
B. It provides workload flexibility to more efficiently leverage available resources within a resource pool, and facilitates expansion options. In addition, daily backups create minimal downtime for critical workloads.
C. It separates infrastructure and virtual desktop workloads according to resource usage characteristics to avoid conflicts. In addition, it provides critical database services with sufficient workload-specific resources and failover capabilities.
D. It ensures the logical separation of all workloads and virtual desktops. In addition, the backup solution reduces the risk of data loss and minimizes downtime.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
Why is creating a resource pool comprising a maximum of 16 XenServer hosts, using a shared storage repository to provide XenMotion and high availability, and replicating meta information to the disaster recovery site the best design solution?
A. It addresses all customer requirements by ensuring appropriate design of resource pools, high availability for critical workloads, and a new storage solution for disaster recovery purposes.
B. It ensures simple setup with a built-in failover design.
C. It allows virtual workloads to fail over to a failover site for disaster recovery purposes.
D. It optimizes performance and provides centralized management.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
How many Provisioning Services servers should the architect install in each of the three configured sites?
A. One server in each datacenter
B. Two servers in each datacenter
C. Three servers in each datacenter
D. Two servers in the primary datacenter, two servers in the secondary datacenter, and one server in the remaining datacenter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases. 1Y0-401 dumps
How should the resource pools be designed to host the infrastructure workloads and virtual desktops to ensure high availability?
A. Separate the workloads by roles and group them as a XenServer resource pool to ensure easier management, fewer workload conflicts, and support for disaster recovery. Each XenServer resource pool should comprise a maximum of eight XenServer hosts. A storage repository needs to be implemented for central storage of virtual disks, as well as for XenMotion, high availability, and backup for disaster recovery purposes.
B. Separate the workloads by roles and group them as a XenServer resource pool to reflect the OU structure of Active Directory. Each XenServer resource pool should comprise a maximum of 24 XenServer hosts. A storage repository needs to be implemented for central storage of virtual disks, as well as for XenMotion, high availability, and backup for disaster recovery purposes.
C. Separate the workloads by roles and group them as a XenServer resource pool. Each XenServer resource pool should comprise a maximum of 16 XenServer hosts. Multiple storage repositories need to be implemented for central storage of virtual disks, as well as for XenMotion and high availability between resource pools and backup for disaster recovery purposes.
D. Separate the workloads by roles and group them as a XenServer resource pool to ensure that the workloads can be streamed by Provisioning Services, including XenServer. Each XenServer resource pool should comprise a maximum of 32 XenServer hosts. Multiple storage repositories need to be implemented for central storage of virtual disks, as well as for XenMotion, high availability between resource pools, and backup for disaster recovery purposes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Scenario:
To ensure the security of its new solution, CGE wants to limit end-user access to USB peripherals. Policies have been implemented to disable USB redirection for all end users. As a company policy, only the Research end-user group will be allowed to access USB peripheral devices. What could a Citrix Architect design to meet the stated requirements?
A. A GPO that allows USB redirection, linked to the CGE OU.
B. A GPO that allows USB redirection, linked only to the Aberdeen and Houston OUs.
C. A Citrix policy that allows USB redirection, with a filter on the IP range for CGE\’s Aberdeen and Houston subnets.
D. A Citrix policy that allows USB redirection, with a filter on the Delivery Group for the Research end-user group desktop.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
What is the benefit of using the Local VM FlexCast model?
A. It is compatible with tablet devices.
B. It offers the greatest level of end-user personalization.
C. It supports a variety of hardware configurations from a single image.
D. It allows remote access to applications.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Scenario:
CGE is experiencing numerous issues with its existing profile management solution. The Citrix Architect managing the project is tasked with designing a solution that alleviates existing issues and, if possible, minimizes the loss of existing customizations. Configuration changes need to be implemented quickly and with minimal complexity.
Why does enabling \’Offline profile support\’ benefit CGE\’s Sales end-user group?
A. It allows faster logons and logoffs.
B. It minimizes the required storage needed for folder redirection.
C. It simplifies home drive cleanup.
D. It improves data accuracy in volatile environments.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. 1Y0-401 dumps The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
What are the benefits of using Hosted Shared servers provisioned from cloned VM templates?
A. It provides the highest end-user density at the lowest cost.
B. It provides the greatest level of end-user personalization and control.
C. It offers the lowest storage performance requirement and the highest end-user density.
D. It facilitates rapid provisioning.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Scenario:
CGE is experiencing numerous issues with its existing profile management solution. The Citrix Architect managing the project is tasked with designing a solution that alleviates existing issues and, if possible, minimizes the loss of existing customizations. Configuration changes need to be implemented quickly and with minimal complexity.
Why does enabling file and folder exclusions when configuring Citrix Profile management without folder redirection benefit CGE\’s Sales end-user group?
A. It minimizes the required storage needed for folder redirection.
B. It simplifies home drive cleanup.
C. It improves application performance.
D. It allows faster logons and logoffs.
Correct Answer: A

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Cisco 300-820 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Traversal Server
B. Advanced Networking
C. Device Provisioning
D. Rich Media Sessions
E. TURN Relays
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Core can use private CA signed certificate.
B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store.
C. Expressway must generate certificate signing request.
D. Expressway Edge must use public CA signed certificate.
E. The Jabber client can work with public or private CA signed certificate.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two outbound connections should an administrator configure on the internal firewall? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP: TCP 7400
B. SIP: TCP 7001
C. SIP TCP 5061
D. Media: UDP 36012 to 59999
E. HTTPS: TCP 8443
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X12-5/CiscoExpressway-IP-Port-Usage-for-Firewall-Traversal-Deployment-Guide-X12-5.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
Which configuration is required when implementing Mobile and Remote Access on Cisco Expressway?
A. IPS
B. SAML authentication
C. Cisco Unified CM publisher address
D. SSO
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.)
A. d20d16d20d22
B. 2091652010224
C. 209165200225
D. d209d165d200d224
E. 209165200224
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 6
When an Expressway-E is configured for static NAT, which Session Description Protocol attribute is modified to reflect
the NAT address?
A. SDP b-line
B. SIP record route
C. SDP c-line
D. SDP m-line
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which role does Call Policy play when preventing toll fraud on Expressways?
A. It controls which calls are allowed, which calls are rejected, and which calls are redirected to a different destination.
B. It changes the calling and called number on a call.
C. It changes the audio protocol used by a call through Expressways.
D. It changes the audio codec used in a call through Expressways.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
When designing the call control on a Cisco Expressway Core, which is the sequence of dial plan functions?
A. transforms, CPL, user policy, search rules
B. search rules, zones, local zones
C. DNS zone, local zone, search rules
D. search rules, transforms
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?
A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.
B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.
C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.
D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What is a key configuration requirement for Hybrid Message Service High Availability deployment with multiple IM and
Presence clusters?
A. You must have the Intercluster Sync Agent working across your IM and Presence clusters.
B. You must have the Intercluster Lookup Service working across all of your IM and Presence clusters.
C. Your IM and Presence Service clusters must have Multiple Device Messaging disabled.
D. AXL service should be activated only on the publisher of each IM and Presence cluster.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
How does an administrator configure an Expressway to make sure an external caller cannot reach a specific internal
address?
A. add the specific URI in the firewall section of the Expressway and block it
B. block the call with a call policy rule in the Expressway-E
C. add a search rule route all calls to the Cisco UCM
D. configure FAC for the destination alias on the Expressway
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages.
What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices?
A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space.
B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages.
C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path.
D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of a transform in the Expressway server?
A. A transform has the function as a neighbor zone in the Expressway. It creates a connection with another server.
B. A transform changes the audio codec when the call goes through the Expressway.
C. A transform is used to route calls to a destination.
D. A transform changes an alias that matches certain criteria into another alias.
Correct Answer: D

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Microsoft MS-600 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
You need to develop a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) solution that interacts with Microsoft SharePoint and Teams. The
solution must share the same code base. What should you include in the solution?
A. Include the Microsoft Authentication Library for .NET (MSALNET) in the solution.
B. Grant admin consent to the Teams API.
C. Make the code aware of the Teams context and the SharePoint context.
D. Publish the solution to an Azure App Service.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
You are developing a single-page application (SPA).
You plan to access user data from Microsoft Graph by using an AJAX call.
You need to obtain an access token by the Microsoft Authentication Library (MSAL). The solution must minimize
authentication prompts.
How should you complete the code segment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: loginPopup
Box 2: acquireTokenSilent
The pattern for acquiring tokens for APIs with MSAL.js is to first attempt a silent token request by using the
acquireTokenSilent method. When this method is called, the library first checks the cache in browser storage to see if a
valid token
exists and returns it. When no valid token is in the cache, it sends a silent token request to Azure Active Directory
(Azure AD) from a hidden iframe. This method also allows the library to renew tokens.
Box 3: acquireTokenPopup
//AcquireToken Failure, send an interactive request.
Example:
userAgentApplication.loginPopup(applicationConfig.graphScopes).then(function (idToken) { //Login Success
userAgentApplication.acquireTokenSilent(applicationConfig.graphScopes).then(function (accessToken) {
//AcquireToken Success
updateUI();
}, function (error) {
//AcquireToken Failure, send an interactive request.
userAgentApplication.acquireTokenPopup(applicationConfig.graphScopes).then(function (accessToken) {
updateUI();
}, function (error) {
console.log(error);
});
})
}, function (error) {
console.log(error);
});
Reference: https://github.com/AzureAD/microsoft-authentication-library-for-js/issues/339

 

QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You can use a Command Set extension to develop a breadcrumb element that will appear on every Microsoft
SharePoint page.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. an Application Customizer
C. a Field Customizer
D. a web part
Correct Answer: B
Application Customizers provide access to well-known locations on SharePoint pages that you can modify based on
your business and functional requirements. For example, you can create dynamic header and footer experiences that
render across all the pages in SharePoint Online.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/extensions/get-started/using-page-placeholder-withextensions

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You are developing an application that will upload files that are larger than 50 MB to Microsoft OneDrive.
You need to recommend an upload solution to ensure that the file upload process can resume if a network error occurs
during the upload.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the actions from the list of actions to the answer
area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 5
You have an application that has the code shown in the exhibits. (Click the JavaScript Version tab or the C# Version
tab.)
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
JavaScript Version

C# Version

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No
Box 2: No
Box 3: Yes
A file is downloaded from OneDrive and saved locally.
Drive/Root is the drive resource is the top level object representing a user\\’s OneDrive or a document library in
SharePoint.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/graph/api/resources/drive

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You are developing a sever-based application that has the following requirements:
Prompt the user to fill out a form that contains a keyword. Search the Microsoft OneDrive folder for files that contain the
keyword and return the results to the user.
Allow the user to select one of the files from the results. Copy the selected file to an Azure Blob storage container.
Which four actions should the application perform in sequence? To answer, move the actions from the list of actions to
the
answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 7
You have a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) 1.5 solution.
You need to ensure that the solution can be used as a tab in Microsoft Teams.
What should you do first?
A. Convert the solution to use the Bot Framework
B. Deploy the solution to a developer site collection
C. Deploy the solution to the Microsoft AppSource store
D. Upgrade the solution to the latest version of SPFx
Correct Answer: D
Starting with the SharePoint Framework v1.8, you can implement your Microsoft Teams tabs using SharePoint
Framework. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/web-parts/get-started/using-web-part-asms-teams-tab

 

QUESTION 8
You have a custom Microsoft Word add-in that was written by using Microsoft Visual Studio Code.
A user reports that there is an issue with the add-in.
You need to debug the add-in for Word Online.
What should you do before you begin debugging in Visual Studio Code?
A. Disable script debugging in your web browser
B. Sideload the add-in
C. Publish the manifest to the Microsoft SharePoint app catalog
D. Add the manifest path to the trusted catalogs
Correct Answer: C
Debug your add-in from Excel or Word on the web
To debug your add-in by using Office on the web (see step 3):
9. Deploy your add-in to a server that supports SSL.
10.In your add-in manifest file, update the SourceLocation element value to include an absolute, rather than a relative,
URI.
11.Upload the manifest to the Office Add-ins library in the app catalog on SharePoint.
12.Launch Excel or Word on the web from the app launcher in Office 365, and open a new document.
13.On the Insert tab, choose My Add-ins or Office Add-ins to insert your add-in and test it in the app.
14.Use your favorite browser tool debugger to debug your add-in.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office/dev/add-ins/testing/debug-add-ins-in-office-online


QUESTION 9
You are developing a Microsoft Office Add-in for Microsoft Word. Which Office Ul element can contain commands from
the add-in?
A. dialog boxes
B. the Quick Access Toolbar (QAT)
C. context menus
D. task panes
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
You need to develop a server-based web app that will be registered with the Microsoft identity platform. The solution
must ensure that the app can perform operations on behalf of the user. Which type of authorization flow should you
use?
A. authorization code
B. refresh token
C. resource owner password
D. device code
Correct Answer: A
In web server apps, the sign-in authentication flow takes these high-level steps: You can ensure the user\\’s identity by
validating the ID token with a public signing key that is received from the Microsoft identity platform endpoint. A session
cookie is set, which can be used to identify the user on subsequent page requests.

In addition to simple sign-in, a web server app might need to access another web service, such as a REST API. In this
case, the web server app engages in a combined OpenID Connect and OAuth 2.0 flow, by using the OAuth 2.0
authorization code flow. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/v2-app-types

 

QUESTION 11
You company has a third-party invoicing web app.
You need to display the app within Microsoft Teams for one user only. The app will not require conversational
interactions.
How should you display the app by using the minimum amount of effort?
A. Instruct the user to add a website tab
B. Instruct the user to add an App Studio app
C. Create a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) web part
D. Create a search-based messaging extension
Correct Answer: A
There are currently three methods of app integration in Teams: Connectors, Bots, and Tabs. Tabs offer more extensive
integration by allowing you to view entire third-party services within Microsoft Teams. Reference:
https://www.sherweb.com/blog/office-365/o365-microsoft-teams-apps/

 

QUESTION 12
You need to retrieve a list of the last 10 files that the current user opened from Microsoft OneDrive. The response must
contain only the file ID and the file name.
Which URI should you use to retrieve the results? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

“graph.microsoft.com” “drive” onedrive
Box 1: root
/root – The root folder for the drive.
Box 2: $select=id,name
To specify a different set of properties to return than the default set provided by the Graph, use the $select query option.
The $select option allows for choosing a subset or superset of the default set returned. For example, when retrieving
your messages, you might want to select that only the from and subject properties of messages are returned.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/onedrive/developer/rest-api/concepts/addressing-driveitems
https://developer.microsoft.com/en-us/graph/docs/overview/query_parameters

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[July 2021] Get the latest Cisco 300-810 exam dumps from Lead4Pass | 300-810 online practice test

Lead4Pass shares the latest and effective 300-810 dumps to help pass the 300-810 exam: “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA)“! Lead4Pass 300-810 Dumps includes 300-810 VCE dumps and 300-810 PDF dumps.
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Cisco 300-810 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two methods does Cisco Jabber use for contact searching in an on-premises deployment model? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. XMPP
C. UDS
D. LDAP
E. SIP
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/presence.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which function of the Cisco IM and Presence high availability solution is true?
A. When the server has been restored to a normal state, user sessions remain on the backup server.
B. When an event takes place, the end user sessions are not moved from the failed server to the backup.
C. When the server has been restored, the server automatically fails back.
D. When a high availability event takes place, the end user sessions are moved from the failed server to the backup.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-im-presenceservice/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which service must be activated on Cisco Unity Connection to utilize LDAP synchronization?
A. Cisco Tomcat
B. Cisco Sync Agent
C. Cisco DirSync
D. Cisco RIS Data Collector
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/10x/administration/guide/10xcucsagx/10xcucsag120.html

 

QUESTION 4
Which component of SAML SSO defines the transport mechanism that is used to deliver the SAML messages between
entities?
A. profiles
B. metadata
C. assertions
D. bindings
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which SAML 2.0 profile is supported by Cisco UCM, Cisco Unified IM and Presence, and Unity Connection version 10.x
and above?
A. single logout
B. web browser SSO
C. name identifier management
D. identity provider discovery
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q6

Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in
the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is
configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this
issue?
A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Feature Services.
C. Restart XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Network Services.
D. Activate XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsol-chat-00.html

 

QUESTION 7
What are two Cisco Jabber 12.6 on-premises deployment types that can be run on a Windows- enabled PC? (Choose
two.)
A. Contact Center Agent
B. IM-only
C. multicloud-based
D. Full UC
E. cloud-based
Correct Answer: BD
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/12_6/cjab_b_on-prem-deployment-ciscojabber_12-6.pdf

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q8

Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to
Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in
the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in?
A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp.
B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM.
C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong.
D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/ta-p/3143446

 

QUESTION 9
Which two protocols does the Cisco IM Presence service use to federate with external domains? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP
B. SNMP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
E. SMPP
Correct Answer: AC
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/interdomain_federation/11_5_1/cup0_b_interdomain-federation-guide-imp-115.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.cisco 300-810 questions q10

Which statement is true?
A. If the IMandP node in sub-cluster-1 goes down, then users assigned to it are randomly split between the two
remaining subclusters.
B. The administrator must add one node to each subcluster for high availability.
C. IMandP nodes in each subscluster must be configured from the same OVA template.
D. Each Cisco IMandP subcluster must have the same number of nodes.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring DNS for service discovery in a Jabber deployment for on-premises clients. Which snippet will
complete the SRV record name _tcp.example.com?
A. _cisco_uds
B. _collab_edge
C. _xmpp.server
D. _xmpp-client
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2016/pdf/BRKCOL-2344.pdf

 

QUESTION 12
Which SAML component specifies the mapping of SAML assertion protocol message exchanges with standard
messaging formats or communication protocols such as SOAP exchanges?
A. SAML binding
B. SAML assertion
C. SAML profiles
D. SAML protocol
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_Assertion_Markup_Language

 

QUESTION 13
SAML SSO is enabled in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What happens when a browser- based client
attempts to access a protected resource on a service provider?
A. The browser follows the redirect and issues an HTTPS GET request to the IdP.
B. The IdP checks for a valid browser session.
C. The service provider generates a SAML authentication request.
D. The SAML request is maintained as a query parameter in the GET request.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/SAML_SSO_deployment_guide/12_5_1/cucm_b_samlsso-deployment-guide-12_5/cucm_b_saml-sso-deployment-guide-12_5_chapter_01.html


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[July 2021] Get the latest Microsoft DP-203 exam dumps from Lead4Pass | DP-203 online practice test

Lead4Pass shares the latest and effective DP-203 dumps to help pass the DP-203 exam: “Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure“! Lead4Pass DP-203 Dumps includes DP-203 VCE dumps and DP-203 PDF dumps.
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Microsoft DP-203 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
Which Azure Data Factory components should you recommend using together to import the daily inventory data from
the SQL server to Azure Data Lake Storage? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Self-hosted integration runtime
A self-hosted IR is capable of running copy activity between a cloud data store and a data store in a private network.
Box 2: Schedule trigger
Schedule every 8 hours
Box 3: Copy activity
Scenario:
Customer data, including name, contact information, and loyalty number, comes from Salesforce and can be imported
into Azure once every eight hours. Row modified dates are not trusted in the source table.
Product data, including product ID, name, and category, comes from Salesforce and can be imported into Azure once
every eight hours. Row modified dates are not trusted in the source table.

 

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You use Azure Data Factory to prepare data to be queried by Azure Synapse Analytics serverless SQL pools.
Files are initially ingested into an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account as 10 small JSON files. Each file contains the
same data attributes and data from a subsidiary of your company.
You need to move the files to a different folder and transform the data to meet the following requirements:
Provide the fastest possible query times.
Automatically infer the schema from the underlying files.
How should you configure the Data Factory copy activity? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Preserver hierarchy
Compared to the flat namespace on Blob storage, the hierarchical namespace greatly improves the performance of
directory management operations, which improves overall job performance.
Box 2: Parquet
Azure Data Factory parquet format is supported for Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2.
Parquet supports the schema property.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/data-lake-storage-introduction
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/format-parquet

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You need to design the partitions for the product sales transactions. The solution must meet the sales transaction
dataset requirements.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Sales date
Scenario: Contoso requirements for data integration include:
Partition data that contains sales transaction records. Partitions must be designed to provide efficient loads by month.
Boundary values must belong to the partition on the right.
Box 2: An Azure Synapse Analytics Dedicated SQL pool
Scenario: Contoso requirements for data integration include:
Ensure that data storage costs and performance are predictable.
The size of a dedicated SQL pool (formerly SQL DW) is determined by Data Warehousing Units (DWU).
Dedicated SQL pool (formerly SQL DW) stores data in relational tables with columnar storage. This format significantly
reduces data storage costs and improves query performance.
Synapse analytics dedicated SQL pool
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-overview-what-is

 

QUESTION 4
You plan to create an Azure Databricks workspace that has a tiered structure. The workspace will contain the following
three workloads:
A workload for data engineers who will use Python and SQL.
A workload for jobs that will run notebooks that use Python, Scala, and SOL.
A workload that data scientists will use to perform ad hoc analysis in Scala and R.
The enterprise architecture team at your company identifies the following standards for Databricks environments:
The data engineers must share a cluster.
The job cluster will be managed by using a request process whereby data scientists and data engineers provide
packaged notebooks for deployment to the cluster.
All the data scientists must be assigned their own cluster that terminates automatically after 120 minutes of inactivity.
Currently, there are three data scientists.
You need to create the Databricks clusters for the workloads.
Solution: You create a High Concurrency cluster for each data scientist, a High Concurrency cluster for the data
engineers, and a Standard cluster for the jobs.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Need a High Concurrency cluster for the jobs.
Standard clusters are recommended for a single user. Standard can run workloads developed in any language: Python,
R, Scala, and SQL.
A high concurrency cluster is a managed cloud resource. The key benefits of high concurrency clusters are that they
provide Apache Spark-native fine-grained sharing for maximum resource utilization and minimum query latencies.
Reference:
https://docs.azuredatabricks.net/clusters/configure.html

 

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool that contains a large fact table. The table contains 50
columns and 5 billion rows and is a heap.
Most queries against the table aggregate values from approximately 100 million rows and return only two columns.
You discover that the queries against the fact table are very slow.
Which type of index should you add to provide the fastest query times?
A. nonclustered column store
B. clustered column store
C. nonclustered
D. clustered
Correct Answer: B
Clustered columnstore indexes are one of the most efficient ways you can store your data in a dedicated SQL pool.
Columnstore tables won\\’t benefit a query unless the table has more than 60 million rows.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql/best-practices-dedicated-sql-pool

 

QUESTION 6
You have a table in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. The table was created by using the following
Transact-SQL statement.

You need to alter the table to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that users can identify the current manager of employees.
Support creating an employee reporting hierarchy for your entire company.
Provide fast lookup of the managers\\’ attributes such as name and job title.
Which column should you add to the table?
A. [ManagerEmployeeID] [int] NULL
B. [ManagerEmployeeID] [smallint] NULL
C. [ManagerEmployeeKey] [int] NULL
D. [ManagerName] [varchar](200) NULL
Correct Answer: A
Use the same definition as the EmployeeID column.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/analysis-services/tabular-models/hierarchies-ssas-tabular

 

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You build an Azure Data Factory pipeline to move data from an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container to a database
in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool.
Data in the container is stored in the following folder structure.
/in/{YYYY}/{MM}/{DD}/{HH}/{mm}
The earliest folder is /in/2021/01/01/00/00. The latest folder is /in/2021/01/15/01/45.
You need to configure a pipeline trigger to meet the following requirements:
Existing data must be loaded.
Data must be loaded every 30 minutes.
Late-arriving data of up to two minutes must be included in the load for the time at which the data should have arrived.
How should you configure the pipeline trigger? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Box 1: Tumbling window
To be able to use the Delay parameter we select the Tumbling window.
Box 2:
Recurrence: 30 minutes, not 32 minutes
Delay: 2 minutes.
The amount of time to delay the start of data processing for the window. The pipeline run is started after the expected
execution time plus the amount of delay. The delay defines how long the trigger waits past the due time before
triggering a
new run. The delay doesn\\’t alter the window start time.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/how-to-create-tumbling-window-trigger

 

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool.
You need to ensure that data in the pool is encrypted at rest. The solution must NOT require modifying applications that
query the data.
What should you do?
A. Enable encryption at rest for the Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account.
B. Enable Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for the pool.
C. Use a customer-managed key to enable double encryption for the Azure Synapse workspace.
D. Create an Azure key vault in the Azure subscription to grant access to the pool.
Correct Answer: B
Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) helps protect against the threat of malicious activity by encrypting and decrypting
your data at rest. When you encrypt your database, associated backups and transaction log files are encrypted without
requiring any changes to your applications. TDE encrypts the storage of an entire database by using a symmetric key
called the database encryption key.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-overviewmanage-security

 

QUESTION 9
You need to implement the surrogate key for the retail store table. The solution must meet the sales transaction dataset
requirements. What should you create?
A. a table that has an IDENTITY property
B. a system-versioned temporal table
C. a user-defined SEQUENCE object
D. a table that has a FOREIGN KEY constraint
Correct Answer: A
Scenario: Implement a surrogate key to account for changes to the retail store addresses.
A surrogate key on a table is a column with a unique identifier for each row. The key is not generated from the table
data. Data modelers like to create surrogate keys on their tables when they design data warehouse models. You can
use the IDENTITY property to achieve this goal simply and effectively without affecting load performance.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-tablesidentity

 

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You are creating dimensions for a data warehouse in an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool.
You create a table by using the Transact-SQL statement shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Type 2
A Type 2 SCD supports versioning of dimension members. Often the source system doesn\\’t store versions, so the
data warehouse load process detects and manages changes in a dimension table. In this case, the dimension table
must use
a surrogate key to provide a unique reference to a version of the dimension member. It also includes columns that
define the date range validity of the version (for example, StartDate and EndDate) and possibly a flag column (for
example,
current) to easily filter by current dimension members.
Incorrect Answers:
A Type 1 SCD always reflects the latest values, and when changes in source data are detected, the dimension table
data is overwritten.
Box 2: a business key
A business key or natural key is an index that identifies the uniqueness of a row based on columns that exist naturally in a
table according to business rules. For example, business keys are customer code in a customer table, composite of
sales
order header number and sales order item line number within a sales order details table.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/populate-slowly-changing-dimensions-azure-synapse-analyticspipelines/3-choose-between-dimension-types

 

QUESTION 11
You have an Azure Databricks workspace named workspace1 in the Standard pricing tier.
You need to configure workspace1 to support autoscaling all-purpose clusters. The solution must meet the following
requirements:
Automatically scale down workers when the cluster is underutilized for three minutes.
Minimize the time it takes to scale to the maximum number of workers.
Minimize costs.
What should you do first?
A. Enable container services for workspace1.
B. Upgrade workspace1 to the Premium pricing tier.
C. Set Cluster-Mode to High Concurrency.
D. Create a cluster policy in workspace1.
Correct Answer: B
For clusters running Databricks Runtime 6.4 and above, optimized autoscaling is used by all-purpose clusters in the
Premium plan Optimized autoscaling:
Scales up from min to max in 2 steps.
Can scale down even if the cluster is not idle by looking at shuffle file state.
Scales down based on a percentage of current nodes.
On job clusters, scales down if the cluster is underutilized over the last 40 seconds.
On all-purpose clusters, scales down if the cluster is underutilized over the last 150 seconds.
The spark. data bricks.aggressiveWindowDownS Spark configuration property specifies in seconds how often a cluster
makes down-scaling decisions. Increasing the value causes a cluster to scale down more slowly. The maximum value
is
600.
Note: Standard autoscaling
Starts with adding 8 nodes. Thereafter, scales up exponentially, but can take many steps to reach the max. You can
customize the first step by setting the spark. data bricks. autoscaling.standardFirstStepUp Spark configuration property.
Scales down only when the cluster is completely idle and it has been underutilized for the last 10 minutes.
Scales down exponentially, starting with 1 node.
Reference:
https://docs.databricks.com/clusters/configure.html

 

QUESTION 12
You are creating an Azure Data Factory data flow that will ingest data from a CSV file, cast columns to specified types
of data, and insert the data into a table in an Azure Synapse Analytic dedicated SQL pool. The CSV file contains three
columns named username, comment, and date.
The data flow already contains the following:
A source transformation.
A Derived Column transformation to set the appropriate types of data.
A sink transformation to land the data in the pool.
You need to ensure that the data flow meets the following requirements:
All valid rows must be written to the destination table.
Truncation errors in the comment column must be avoided proactively.
Any rows containing comment values that will cause truncation errors upon insert must be written to a file in blob
storage.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. To the data flow, add a sink transformation to write the rows to a file in blob storage.
B. To the data flow, add a Conditional Split transformation to separate the rows that will cause truncation errors.
C. To the data flow, add a filter transformation to filter out rows that will cause truncation errors.
D. Add a select transformation to select only the rows that will cause truncation errors.
Correct Answer: AB
B: Example:
1.
This conditional split transformation defines the maximum length of “title” to be five. Any row that is less than or equal to
five will go into the GoodRows stream. Any row that is larger than five will go into the BadRows stream.
2.
This conditional split transformation defines the maximum length of “title” to be five. Any row that is less than or equal to
five will go into the GoodRows stream. Any row that is larger than five will go into the BadRows stream.

A:
3.
Now we need to log the rows that failed. Add a sink transformation to the BadRows stream for logging. Here, we\\’ll
“auto-map” all of the fields so that we have logging of the complete transaction record. This is a text-delimited CSV file
output to a single file in Blob Storage. We\\’ll call the log file “badrows.csv”.
4.
The completed data flow is shown below. We are now able to split off error rows to avoid the SQL truncation errors and
put those entries into a log file. Meanwhile, successful rows can continue to write to our target database.

 

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/how-to-data-flow-error-rows

 

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You are building an Azure Stream Analytics job to identify how much time a user spends interacting with a feature on a
webpage.
The job receives events based on user actions on the webpage. Each row of data represents an event. Each event has
a type of either \\’start\\’ or \\’end\\’.
You need to calculate the duration between start and end events.
How should you complete the query? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: DATEDIFF
DATEDIFF function returns the count (as a signed integer value) of the specified datepart boundaries crossed between
the specified startdate and enddate.
Syntax: DATEDIFF ( datepart , startdate, enddate )
Box 2: LAST
The LAST function can be used to retrieve the last event within a specific condition. In this example, a condition is an
event of type Start, partitioning the search by PARTITION BY user and feature. This way, every user and feature is
treated independently when searching for the Start event. LIMIT DURATION limits the search back in time to 1 hour
between the End and Start events.
Example:
SELECT [user], feature, DATEDIFF( second, LAST(Time) OVER (PARTITION BY [user], feature LIMIT
DURATION(hour, 1) WHEN Event = \\’start\\’), Time) as duration
FROM input TIMESTAMP BY Time
WHERE Event = \\’end\\’
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-stream-analytics-query-patterns

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Microsoft AZ-140 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
You have a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool that runs Windows 10 Enterprise multi-session. You need to configure
automatic scaling of the host pool to meet the following requirements:
1.
Distribute new user sessions across all running session hosts.
2.
Automatically start a new session host when concurrent user sessions exceed 30 users per host. What should you
include in the solution?
A. an Azure Automation account and the depth-first load balancing algorithm
B. an Azure Automation account and the breadth-first load balancing algorithm
C. an Azure load balancer and the breadth-first load balancing algorithm
D. an Azure load balancer and the depth-first load balancing algorithm
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/host-pool-load-balancing
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/configure-host-pool-load-balancing

 

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You have a Windows Virtual Desktop deployment.
You need to ensure that all the connections to the managed resources in the host pool require multi-factor
authentication (MFA).
Which two settings should you modify in a conditional access policy? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/tutorial-enable-azure-mfa

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows 10 Enterprise multi-session.
You plan to add language packs to VM1 and create a custom image of VM1 for a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool.
You need to ensure that modern apps can use the additional language packs when you deploy session hosts by using
the custom image.
Which command should you run first? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/troubleshoot/windows-server/deployment/issues-appx-cleanupmaintenance-task
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/scheduledtasks/disablescheduledtask?view=windowsserver2019-ps

 

QUESTION 4
You have a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool that contains 20 Windows 10 Enterprise multi-session hosts.
Users connect to the Windows Virtual Desktop deployment from computers that run Windows 10.
You plan to implement FSLogix Application Masking.
You need to deploy Application Masking rule sets. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
To where should you copy the rule sets?
A. the FSLogix profile container of each user
B. C:\Program Files\FSLogix\Apps\Rules on every Windows 10 computer
C. C:\Program Files\FSLogix\Apps\Rules on every session host
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/fslogix-office-app-rule-editor

 

QUESTION 5
You plan to deploy Windows Virtual Desktop to meet the department requirements shown in the following table.

You plan to use Windows Virtual Desktop host pools with load balancing and autoscaling.
You need to recommend a host pool design that meets the requirements. The solution must minimize costs.
What is the minimum number of host pools you should recommend?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/create-host-pools-azure-marketplace

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG-DROP
You have a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool named Pool1. Pool1 contains session hosts that use the FSLogix profile
containers hosted in Azure NetApp Files volumes.
You need to back up profile files by using snapshots.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-netapp-files/azure-netapp-files-manage-snapshots

 

QUESTION 7
You plan to deploy Windows Virtual Desktop. The deployment will use existing virtual machines. You create a Windows
Virtual Desktop host pool.
You need to ensure that you can add virtual machines to the host pool.
What should you do first?
A. Register the Microsoft.DesktopVirtualization provider.
B. Generate a registration key.
C. Run the Invoke-AzVMRunCommand cmdlet.
D. Create a role assignment.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/create-host-pools-azure-marketplace


QUESTION 8
You need to configure the virtual machines that have the Pool1 prefix. The solution must meet the technical
requirements. What should you use?
A. a Windows Virtual Desktop automation task
B. Virtual machine auto-shutdown
C. Service Health in Azure Monitor
D. Azure Automation
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/create-automation-tasks-azure-resources

 

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com and an Azure virtual network named
VNET1.
To VNET1, you deploy an Azure Active Directory Domain Services (Azure AD DS) managed domain named
litwareinc.com.
To VNET1, you plan to deploy a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool named Pool1.
You need to ensure that you can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise host pools to Pool1.
What should you do first?
A. Modify the settings of the litwareinc.com DNS zone.
B. Modify the DNS settings of VNET1.
C. Add a custom domain name to contoso.com.
D. Implement Azure AD Connect cloud sync.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/tutorial-create-instance

 

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend an authentication solution that meets the performance requirements.
Which two actions should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Join all the session hosts to Azure AD.
B. In each Azure region that will contain the Windows Virtual Desktop session hosts, create an Azure Active Directory
Domain Service (Azure AD DS) managed domain.
C. Deploy domain controllers for the on-premises Active Directory domain on Azure virtual machines.
D. Deploy read-only domain controllers (RODCs) on Azure virtual machines.
E. In each Azure region that will contain the Windows Virtual Desktop session hosts, create an Active Directory site.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.compete366.com/blog-posts/how-to-implement-azure-windows-virtual-desktop-wvd/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/create-host-pools-azure-marketplace

 

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain that syncs to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
tenant. The domain contains the users shown in the following table.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-netapp-files/azure-netapp-files-manage-snapshots

 

QUESTION 7
You plan to deploy Windows Virtual Desktop. The deployment will use existing virtual machines. You create a Windows
Virtual Desktop host pool.
You need to ensure that you can add virtual machines to the host pool.
What should you do first?
A. Register the Microsoft.DesktopVirtualization provider.
B. Generate a registration key.
C. Run the Invoke-AzVMRunCommand cmdlet.
D. Create a role assignment.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/create-host-pools-azure-marketplace


QUESTION 8
You need to configure the virtual machines that have the Pool1 prefix. The solution must meet the technical
requirements. What should you use?
A. a Windows Virtual Desktop automation task
B. Virtual machine auto-shutdown
C. Service Health in Azure Monitor
D. Azure Automation
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/create-automation-tasks-azure-resources

 

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com and an Azure virtual network named
VNET1.
To VNET1, you deploy an Azure Active Directory Domain Services (Azure AD DS) managed domain named
litwareinc.com.
To VNET1, you plan to deploy a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool named Pool1.
You need to ensure that you can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise host pools to Pool1.
What should you do first?
A. Modify the settings of the litwareinc.com DNS zone.
B. Modify the DNS settings of VNET1.
C. Add a custom domain name to contoso.com.
D. Implement Azure AD Connect cloud sync.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/tutorial-create-instance

 

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend an authentication solution that meets the performance requirements.
Which two actions should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Join all the session hosts to Azure AD.
B. In each Azure region that will contain the Windows Virtual Desktop session hosts, create an Azure Active Directory
Domain Service (Azure AD DS) managed domain.
C. Deploy domain controllers for the on-premises Active Directory domain on Azure virtual machines.
D. Deploy read-only domain controllers (RODCs) on Azure virtual machines.
E. In each Azure region that will contain the Windows Virtual Desktop session hosts, create an Active Directory site.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.compete366.com/blog-posts/how-to-implement-azure-windows-virtual-desktop-wvd/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/create-host-pools-azure-marketplace

 

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain that syncs to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
tenant. The domain contains the users shown in the following table.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/environment-setup

 

QUESTION 12
You need to configure the user settings of Admin1 to meet the user profile requirements. What should you do?
A. Modify the membership of the FSLogix ODFC Exclude List group.
B. Modify the membership of the FSLogix Profile Exclude List group.
C. Modify the HKLM\SOFTWARE\FSLogix\Profiles registry settings.
D. Modify the HKLM\SOFTWARE\FSLogix\ODFC registry settings.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/fslogix/overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/fslogix/configure-profile-container-tutorial#set-up-include-and-exclude-user-groups

 

QUESTION 13
You have a Windows Virtual Desktop host pool that contains two session hosts. The Microsoft Teams client is installed
on each session host.
You discover that only the Microsoft Teams chat and collaboration features work. The calling and meeting features are
disabled.
You need to ensure that users can set the calling and meeting features from within Microsoft Teams.
What should you do?
A. Install the Remote Desktop WebRTC Redirector Service.
B. Configure Remote audio mode in the RDP Properties.
C. Install the Teams Meeting add-in for Outlook.
D. Configure audio input redirection.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-desktop/teams-on-wvd

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Microsoft DA-100 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft Power BI report. The size of PBIX file is 550 MB. The report is accessed by using an App
workspace in shared capacity of powerbi.com.
The report uses an imported dataset that contains one fact table. The fact table contains 12
million rows. The dataset is scheduled to refresh twice a day at 08:00 and 17:00.
The report is a single page that contains 15 AppSource visuals and 10 default visuals.
Users say that the report is slow to load the visuals when they access and interact with the report.
You need to recommend a solution to improve the performance of the report.
What should you recommend?
A. Change any DAX measures to use iterator functions.
B. Replace the default visuals with AppSource visuals.
C. Change the imported dataset to DirectQuery.
D. Remove unused columns from tables in the data model.
Correct Answer: C
DirectQuery: No data is imported or copied into Power BI Desktop. Import: The selected tables and columns are
imported into Power BI Desktop. As you create or interact with a visualization, Power BI Desktop uses the imported
data.
Benefits of using DirectQuery
There are a few benefits to using DirectQuery:
DirectQuery lets you build visualizations over very large datasets, where it would otherwise be unfeasible to first import
all the data with pre-aggregation. Underlying data changes can require a refresh of data. For some reports, the need to
display current data can require large data transfers, making reimporting data unfeasible. By contrast, DirectQuery
reports always use current data. The 1-GB dataset limitation doesn\\’t apply to DirectQuery.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/desktop-use-directquery

 

QUESTION 2
You publish a Microsoft Power BI dataset to powerbi.com. The dataset appends data from an on-premises Oracle
database and an Azure SQL database by using one query.
You have admin access to the workspace and permission to use an existing On-premises data gateway for which the
Oracle data source is already configured.
You need to ensure that the data is updated every morning. The solution must minimize configuration effort.
Which two actions should you perform when you configure scheduled refresh? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Configure the dataset to use the existing On-premises data gateway.
B. Deploy an On-premises data gateway in personal mode.
C. Set the refresh frequency to Daily.
D. Configure the dataset to use the personal gateway.
Correct Answer: BC
B: The on-premises data gateway acts as a bridge to provide quick and secure data transfer between on-premises data
(data that isn\\’t in the cloud) and several Microsoft cloud services. These cloud services include Power BI.
On-premises data gateway (personal mode) allows one user to connect to sources, and can\\’t be shared with others.
An on-premises data gateway (personal mode) can be used only with Power BI. This gateway is well-suited to scenarios
where you\\’re the only person who creates reports, and you don\\’t need to share any data sources with others.
C: For Power BI users, refreshing data typically means importing data from the original data sources into a dataset,
either based on a refresh schedule or on-demand. You can perform multiple dataset refreshes daily, which might be
necessary if the underlying source data changes frequently.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/refresh-data

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You have a table that contains the following three columns:
1.
City
2.
Total Sales
3.
Occupation
You need to create a key influencers visualization as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)microsoft da-100 certification exam q3

How should you configure the visualization? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q3-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q3-2

Box 1: Total Sales Box 2: Occupation Box 3: City You can use Expand By to add fields you want to use for setting the
level of the analysis without looking for new influencers. Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-influencers

 

QUESTION 4
You have the visual shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)microsoft da-100 certification exam q4

You need to show the relationship between Total Cost and Total Sales over time. What should you do?
A. Add a play axis.
B. Add a slicer for the year.
C. From the Analytics pane, add an Average line.
D. Create a DAX measure that calculates year-over-year growth.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have a Power BI report.
You need to create a calculated table to return the 100 highest-spending customers.
How should you complete the DAX expression? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q5

Correct Answer:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q5-1

Box 1: TOPN
TOPN returns the top N rows of the specified table.
Box 2: SUMMARIZE
SUMMARIZE returns a summary table for the requested totals over a set of groups.
Box 3: DESC
Sort in descending order.
It is last in the TOPN command.
TOPN syntax:
TOPN(, , , [[, , []]…])
QUESTION 6
You have multiple dashboards.
You need to ensure that when users browse the available dashboards from powerbi.com, they can see which
dashboards contain Personally Identifiable Information (PII). The solution must minimize configuration effort and impact
on the
dashboard design.
What should you use?
A. comments
B. tiles
C. Microsoft Information Protection sensitivity labels
D. Active Directory groups
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Microsoft Information Protection sensitivity labels provide a simple way for your users to classify critical
content in Power BI without compromising productivity or the ability to collaborate. Sensitivity labels can be applied to
datasets, reports, dashboards, and dataflows.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-security-sensitivity-label-overview

 

QUESTION 7
Your company has employees in 10 states.
The company recently decided to associate each state to one of the following three regions: East, West, and North.
You have a data model that contains employee information by state. The model does NOT include region information.
You have a report that shows the employees by state.
You need to view the employees by region as quickly as possible.
What should you do?
A. Create a new aggregation that summarizes by the employee.
B. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to List.
C. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to Bin.
D. Create a new aggregation that summarizes by state.
Correct Answer: C
With grouping, you are normally working with dimensional attributes. Here we add three new groups (East, West, and
North) and add each state to the appropriate group.
Reference: https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/4720/binning-and-grouping-data-with-power-bi/

QUESTION 8
Which two types of visualizations can be used in the balance sheet reports to meet the reporting goals? Each correct
answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a line chart that shows balances by quarter filtered to account categories that are long-term liabilities.
B. a clustered column chart that shows balances by date (x-axis) and account category (legend) without filters.
C. a clustered column chart that shows balances by quarter filtered to account categories that are long-term liabilities.
D. a pie chart that shows balances by account category without filters.
E. a ribbon chart that shows balances by quarter and accounts in the legend.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 9
You publish a report to a workspace named Customer Services. The report identifies customers that have potential data
quality issues that must be investigated by the customer services department of your company.
You need to ensure that customer service managers can create task lists in Microsoft Excel based on the data.
Which report setting should you configure?
A. Don\\’t allow end-user to save filters on this report.
B. Change default visual interaction from cross highlighting to cross-filtering.
C. Enable the updated filter pane and show filters in the visual header for this report.
D. Allow users to add comments to this report.
E. Choose the type of data you allow your end-users to export.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation: https://powerbi.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/announcing-persistent-filters-in-the-service/

 

QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft Power Bl dashboard.
You need to ensure that consumers of the dashboard can give you feedback that will be visible to the other consumers
of the dashboard.
What should you use?
A. Feedback
B. Subscribe
C. Comments
D. Mark as favorite
Correct Answer: C
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/consumer/end-user-comment

 

QUESTION 11
DRAG-DROP
You are using existing reports to build a dashboard that will be viewed frequently in portrait mode on mobile phones.
You need to build the dashboard.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft da-100 certification exam q11

Correct Answer:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q11-1

When you view dashboards in portrait mode on a phone, you notice the dashboard tiles are laid out one after another,
all the same size. In the Power BI service, you can create a customized view of a dashboard, specifically for portrait
mode
on phones.
Step 1: Open the Dashboard.
Step 2: Change the dashboard view to Phone view
Step 3: Pin items from the reports to the dashboard.
Step 4: Rearrange, resize, or remove items from the Phone view.
Create a phone view of a dashboard
1.
In the Power BI service, open a dashboard (Step 1)
2.
Select the arrow next to Web view in the upper-right corner > select Phone view. (Step2)
The phone dashboard edit view opens. Here you can unpin, resize, and rearrange tiles to fit the phone view. The web
version of the dashboard doesn\\’t change.
3.
Select a tile to drag, resize, or unpin it. You notice the other tiles move out of the way as you drag a tile. The unpinned
tiles go in the Unpinned tiles pane, where they stay unless you add them back.
4.
If you change your mind, select Reset tiles to put them back in the size and order they were before.
5.
When you\\’re satisfied with the phone dashboard layout, select the arrow next to Phone view in the upper-right corner
> select Web view.microsoft da-100 certification exam q11-2

Power BI saves the phone layout automatically.

 

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
You have a query named Customer that imports CSV files from a data lake. The query contains 500 rows as shown in
the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)microsoft da-100 certification exam q12

Each file contains deltas of any new or modified rows from each load to the data lake.
Multiple files can have the same customer ID.
You need to keep only the last modified row for each customer ID.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q12-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q12-2

 

QUESTION 13
You need to create a visualization that compares revenue and cost over time. Which type of visualization should you
use?
A. stacked area chart
B. donut chart
C. line chart
D. waterfall chart
Correct Answer: C
A line chart or line graph displays the evolution of one or several numeric variables. Data points are connected by
straight line segments. A line chart is often used to visualize a trend in data over intervals of time? a time series? thus
the line is often drawn chronologically.microsoft da-100 certification exam q13

Reference: https://www.data-to-viz.com/graph/line.html

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Lead4Pass shares the latest and effective SC-200 dumps to help pass the SC-200 exam: “Microsoft Identity and Access Administrator“! Lead4Pass SC-200 Dumps includes SC-200 VCE dumps and SC-200 PDF dumps.
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  2. Part of Microsoft SC-200 exam practice questions from Youtube
  3. Real questions cracking Microsoft SC-200 exam questions practice test
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Microsoft SC-200 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
You provision Azure Sentinel for a new Azure subscription.
You are configuring the Security Events connector.
While creating a new rule from a template in the connector, you decide to generate a new alert for every event.
You create the following rule query. microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q1

By which two components can you group alerts into incidents? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. user
B. resource group
C. IP address
D. computer
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
You need to create the test rule to meet the Azure Sentinel requirements. What should you do when you create the
rule?
A. From Set rule logic, turn off suppression.
B. From Analytics rule details, configure the tactics.
C. From Set rule logic, map the entities.
D. From Analytics rule details, configure the severity.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sentinel/tutorial-detect-threats-custom

QUESTION 3
You plan to create a custom Azure Sentinel query that will provide a visual representation of the security alerts
generated by Azure Security Center.
You need to create a query that will be used to display a bar graph.
What should you include in the query?
A. extend
B. bin
C. count
D. workspace
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/visualize/workbooks-chart-visualizations

QUESTION 4
You plan to create a custom Azure Sentinel query that will track anomalous Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) sign-in
activity and present the activity as a time chart aggregated by day.
You need to create a query that will be used to display the time chart.
What should you include in the query?
A. extend
B. bin
C. makeset
D. workspace
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/logs/get-started-queries

QUESTION 5
The issue for which team can be resolved by using Microsoft Defender for Endpoint?
A. executive
B. sales
C. marketing
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/microsoft-defender-atp/microsoftdefender-atp-ios

QUESTION 6
DRAG-DROP
You have resources in Azure and Google cloud.
You need to ingest Google Cloud Platform (GCP) data into Azure Defender.
In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area
and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q6

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q6-1

QUESTION 7
DRAG-DROP
You create a new Azure subscription and start collecting logs for Azure Monitor.
You need to configure Azure Security Center to detect possible threats related to sign-ins from suspicious IP addresses
to Azure virtual machines. The solution must validate the configuration.
Which three actions should you perform in a sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of action
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q7

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q7-1

QUESTION 8
You need to visualize Azure Sentinel data and enrich the data by using third-party data sources to identify indicators of
compromise (IoC). What should you use?
A. notebooks in Azure Sentinel
B. Microsoft Cloud App Security
C. Azure Monitor
D. hunting queries in Azure Sentinel
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sentinel/notebooks

QUESTION 9
DRAG-DROP
You open the Cloud App Security portal as shown in the following exhibit.microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q9

You need to remediate the risk for the Launchpad app.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q9-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q9-2

QUESTION 10
DRAG-DROP
You plan to connect an external solution that will send Common Event Format (CEF) messages to Azure Sentinel.
You need to deploy the log forwarder.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q10

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q10-1

QUESTION 11
You have an existing Azure logic app that is used to block Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) users. The logic app is
triggered manually.
You deploy Azure Sentinel.
You need to use the existing logic app as a playbook in Azure Sentinel.
What should you do first?
A. And a new scheduled query rule.
B. Add a data connector to Azure Sentinel.
C. Configure a custom Threat Intelligence connector in Azure Sentinel.
D. Modify the trigger in the logic app.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription that has Azure Defender enabled for all supported resource types.
You create an Azure logic app named LA1.
You plan to use LA1 to automatically remediate security risks detected in Azure Security Center.
You need to test LA1 in Security Center.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q12

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q12-1

QUESTION 13
You have the following advanced hunting query in Microsoft 365 Defender.microsoft sc-200 certifications exam q13

You need to receive an alert when any process disables System Restore on a device managed by Microsoft Defender
during the last 24 hours.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a detection rule.
B. Create a suppression rule.
C. Add | order by Timestamp to the query.
D. Replace DeviceProcessEvents with DeviceNetworkEvents.
E. Add DeviceId and ReportId to the output of the query.
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/microsoft-defender-atp/customdetection-rules

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latest updated RedHat EX200 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
User mary must configure a task.
Requirement: The local time at 14:23 everyday echo “Hello World.”.
Correct Answer: Check the answer in the explanation.
crontab -u mary -e
23 14 * * * echo “Hello World.”

 

QUESTION 2
Whoever creates the files/directories on a data group owner should automatically be in the same group owner as data.
Correct Answer: Check the answer in the explanation.
1.
chmod g+s /data
2.
Verify using: ls -ld /data Permission should be like this: drwxrws— 2 root sysadmin 4096 Mar 16 18:08 /data If SGID bit
is set on directory then who every users creates the files on directory group owner automatically the owner of parent
directory. To set the SGID bit: chmod g+s directory To Remove the SGID bit: chmod g-s directory

 

QUESTION 3
Configure a cron Task.
User natasha must configure a cron job, local time 14:23 runs and executes: */bin/echo hiya every day.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
crontab –e –u natasha 23 14/bin/echo hiya crontab -l -u natasha // view systemctlenable crond systemcdlrestart crond

 

QUESTION 4
Create the following users, groups, and group memberships:
A group named adminuser.
A user natasha who belongs to adminuser as a secondary group A user harry who also belongs to adminuser as a
secondary group.
A user sarah who does not have access to an interactive shell on the system, and who is not a member of adminuser,
natasha, harry, and sarah should all have the password of redhat.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
groupadd sysmgrs
useradd -G sysmgrs Natasha
We can verify the newly created user by cat /etc/passwd) # useradd -G sysmgrs harry # useradd -s /sbin/nologin sarrh #
passwd Natasha # passwd harry # passwd sarrah

 

QUESTION 5
Make a swap partition having 100MB. Make Automatically Usable at System Boot Time.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
Use fdisk /dev/hda ->To create new partition.
Type n-> For New partition
It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
Type the Size: +100M ->You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name. Default System ID is 83 that
means Linux Native.
Type t to change the System ID of partition.
Type Partition Number
Type 82 that means Linux Swap.
Press w to write on partitions table.
Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
mkswap /dev/hda? ->To create Swap File system on partition.
swapon /dev/hda? ->To enable the Swap space from partition.
free -m ->Verify Either Swap is enabled or not.
vi /etc/fstab/dev/hda? swap swap defaults 0 0
Reboot the System and verify that swap is automatically enabled or not.

 

QUESTION 6
Create a volume group, and set 8M as a extends. Divided a volume group containing 50 extends on volume group lv
(lvshare), make it as ext4 file system, and mounted automatically under /mnt/data. And the size of the floating range
should set between 380M and 400M.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
# fdisk # partprobe # pvcreate /dev/vda6 # vgcreate -s 8M vg1 /dev/vda6 -s # lvcreate -n lvshare -l 50 vg1 -l # mkfs.ext4
/dev/vg1/lvshare # mkdir -p /mnt/data # vim /etc/fstab /dev/vg1/lvshare /mnt/data ext4 defaults 0 0 # mount -a # df -h

 

QUESTION 7
Notes:
NFS NFS instructor.example.com:/var/ftp/pub/rhel6/dvd
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
YUM http://instructor.example.com/pub/rhel6/dvd ldap http//instructor.example.com/pub/EXAMPLE-CA-CERT Install
dialog package. yum install dialog

 

QUESTION 8
Your System is going use as a router for 172.24.0.0/16 and 172.25.0.0/16. Enable the IP Forwarding.
1.
echo “1” >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2.
vi /etc/sysctl.conf net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
/proc is the virtual filesystem, containing the information about the running kernel.
To change the parameter of running kernel you should modify on /proc. From Next reboot the system, kernel will take
the value from /etc/sysctl.conf.

 

QUESTION 9
Configure
your web services, download from http://instructor.example.com/pub/serverX.html And the services must be still running
after system rebooting.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
cd /var/www/html wget http://instructor.example.com/pub/serverX.html mv serverX.html index.html /etc/init.d/httpd
restart chkconfig httpd on


QUESTION 10
Create a swap space, set the size is 600 MB, and make it be mounted automatically after rebooting the system
(permanent mount).
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
if=/dev/zero of=/swapfile bs=1M count=600 mkswap /swapfile /etc/fstab: /swapfile swap swap defaults 0 0 mount -a

 

QUESTION 11
Add user: user1, set uid=601 Password: redhat The user\\’s login shell should be non-interactive.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
# useradd -u 601 -s /sbin/nologin user1 # passwd user1 redhat

 

QUESTION 12
Open kmcrl value of 5 , and can verify in /proc/ cmdline
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
# vim /boot/grub/grub.conf kernel/vmlinuz-2.6.32-71.el6.x86_64 ro root=/dev/mapper/GLSvgGLSrootrd_LVM_LV=GLSvg/GLSroot rd_LVM_LV=GLSvg/GLSswaprd_NO_LUKSrd_NO_MDrd_NO_DM
LANG=en_US.UTF-8 SYSFONT=latarcyrheb-sun16 KEYBOARDTYPE=pc KEYTABLE=us crashkernel=auto rhgb quiet
kmcrl=5 Restart to take effect and verification: # cat /proc/cmdline ro root=/dev/mapper/GLSvg-GLSroot
rd_LVM_LV=GLSvg/GLSroot rd_LVM_LV=GLSvg/GLSswap rd_NO_LUKS rd_NO_MD rd_NO_DM
LANG=en_US.UTF-8 SYSFONT=latarcyrheb-sun16 KEYBOARDTYPE=pc KEYTABLE=us rhgb quiet kmcrl=5

 

QUESTION 13
Configure autofs.
Configure the autofs automatically mount to the home directory of LDAP, as required:
server.domain11.example.com use NFS to share the home to your system. This file system contains a pre configured
home directory of user ldapuserX.
Home directory of ldapuserX is:
server.domain11.example.com /home/guests/ldapuser
Home directory of ldapuserX should automatically mount to the ldapuserX of the local /home/guests Home directory’s
write permissions must be available for users ldapuser1’s password is password
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
yum install -y autofs mkdir /home/rehome
/etc/auto.master /home/rehome/etc/auto.ldap Keep then exit cp /etc/auto.misc /etc/auto.ldap
/etc/auto.ldap ldapuserX -fstype=nfs,rw server.domain11.example.com:/home/guests/ Keep then exit systemctl start
autofs systemctl enable autofs su – ldapuserX// test
If the above solutions cannot create files or the command prompt is -bash-4.2$, it maybe exist multi-level directory, this
needs to change the server.domain11.example.com:/home/guests/ to server.domain11.example.com:/home/guests/
ldapuserX. What is multi-level directory? It means there is a directory of ldapuserX under the /home/guests/ldapuserX in
the questions. This directory is the real directory.

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