Microsoft mb-900 exam exercise questions, mb-900 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals” Exam MB-900.
This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational knowledge of Microsoft Dynamics 365, Power Platform applications,
and the cloud computing model. This exam will cover the considerations and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365, the Power Platform,
and cloud services in general. This exam can be taken as a precursor to Dynamics 365 certifications and training.

Here you can get the latest free MB-900 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

MB-900 exam

Candidates for this exam should have a general knowledge of relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment.
Candidates should also have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.

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Exam MB-900: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta):https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-MB-900.aspx

Skills measured

  • Understand Dynamics 365 (40-45%)
  • Understand cloud concepts (25-30%)
  • Understand deployments and releases (20-25%)

Free Microsoft MB-900 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
What are the benefits of using cloud computing? To answer, drag the appropriate release types to the correct benefits.
Each release type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You need to identify which applications can be deployed as software as a service (SaaS) in the Microsoft cloud.
Which two applications can be deployed? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
B. Dynamics GP
C. Microsoft Excel
D. Dynamics CRM 2016
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Match each Microsoft Azure service to its category. To answer, drag the appropriate category from the column on the
left to its Azure service on the right. Each category may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q3-1

 

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined test to determine if it is correct.
The Customer Service Hub app is available on desktop browser and on a mobile device. It can be used for managing
cases and knowledge articles.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change needed
B. optimizes viewing for desktop browsers only
C. is available on a desktop browser for case management, but not for managing knowledge articles
D. does not provide the ability to add an activity to a case on a mobile device
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You need to create a new Dynamics 365 application that limits users to viewing only customer accounts.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You need to determine which tasks are available by default in the mobile app.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the task is available. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Match each application to its definition.
To answer, drag the appropriate application from the column on the left to its definition on the right. Each application
may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes is the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q8-1

 

QUESTION 9
You company wants to test Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement. The 30-day trial expires in a few days.
You need to extend the trial period for an additional 30 days.
What should you do?
A. Purchase a 30-day subscription
B. In the administrative portal, choose Extend trial, and then enter your credit card information
C. Open a support ticket with Microsoft to ask for an extension
D. Export your solution, start a new trial, and import the solution
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/billing-faqs-dynamics-365-online

 

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You need to determine whether to deploy Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations on-premises or in the cloud.
Which capabilities are handled by which deployment models? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
Several company employees need access to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for expense entry purposes
only.
You need to add the most restrictive license.
What should you do?
A. Get a User Subscription License (User SL) and give full user access
B. Get Licensed with Dynamics 365 Team Members
C. Get licensed with a Dynamics 365 Application subscription
D. Get a Device Subscription License (Device SL)
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
You run Dynamics 365 in the cloud. You make customizations using Microsoft Azure Blob storage for storing
documents, Azure Logic Apps for integration, and Azure IoT Hub to collect customer sensor data.
You need to determine the type of cloud service model being used by the customizations.
Which cloud service model is being used?
A. software as a service (SaaS)
B. platform as a service (PaaS)
C. infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
D. hybrid deployment
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A company needs to assess the current General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) compliance for its Dynamics 365
and Microsoft 365 Office implementations.
You need to recommend a tool to help manage GDPR compliance activities. You also need to provide a compliance
score with managed actions for both the company and Microsoft.
Which tool should you recommend?
A. Microsoft Trust Center
B. Detailed Assessment toolkit
C. Compliance Manager
D. Service Trust Portal
E. control mapping
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/meet-data-protection-and-regulatory-reqs-using-microsoft-cloud

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QUESTION 1
An end user needs to completely re-install Windows 7 on a home computer but it did not come with any OS discs. How
would a technician accomplish this?
A. Recovery partition
B. Primary partition
C. System restore
D. System refresh
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following
security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet?
A. Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only
B. Change the default username and password
C. Enable the wireless AP\\’s MAC filtering
D. Enable the wireless AP\\’s WPA2 security
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
The network administrator has changed the IP address of Computer A from 192. 168. 120 to 10. 10. 1020 and now Jane
a user, is unable to connect to file shares on Computer A from Computers using the computer name.
Instructions:
Using the available tools, resolve the connectivity issues. When you have completed the simulation, please select the
done button to submit your answer.
Correct Answer: Please review explanation for detailed answer
Please check the below images for detailed connectivity steps to do:

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QUESTION 4
A technician is attempting to troubleshoot a Linux home folder issue, but does not remember which directory is current.
Which of the following tools should the technician use to find the current directory?
A. dir
B. sudo
C. cd
D. pwd
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
A technician is attempting to manually migrate a user\\’s profile from one Windows PC to another. Files in the user\\’s
My Documents folder cannot be copied. Some files in question have green letters in the filenames. Which of the
following file systems is causing this to occur?
A. exFAT
B. COMPRESSED
C. EFS
D. NTFS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
A company has subscribed to a cloud service, paying monthly for a block of services and being billed incrementally
when they exceed the monthly fee. Which of the following cloud concepts does this represent?
A. Measured service
B. Rapid elasticity
C. On-demand D. Resource pooling
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
The user is having trouble using the mouse. The technician believes a program stopped responding that caused the
issue and asks the customer to hold down “Ctrl + Shift + Esc” to verify. Which of the following did the technician
launch?
A. Task Manager
B. Control Panel
C. Services
D. MSCONFIG
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A technician replaced a video card on a desktop PC. The technician powers on the PC to install the device drivers. The
PC boots up and goes through the POST, but the screen goes black when trying to boot the operating system. Which of
the following steps should the technician perform NEXT to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Flash the BIOS
B. Reseat the video card
C. Boot the PC in safe mode
D. Replace the video card with a new one
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Data on full disk encrypted drives using BitLocker is MOST secure from loss when combined with which of the following
technologies?
A. USB authentication token
B. Filesystem access controls
C. Trusted platform module
D. Fingerprint reader
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
A customer calls an IT consultant to explain an issue they are having with their Windows 7 Professional PC. Windows
Update attempts to install patches upon each startup but fails on the same single update. The customer has attempted
to re-run Windows Update from Control Panel but the issue remains. Which of the following courses of action would
BEST resolve the problem?
A. Running a full DEFRAG on the system
B. Clearing the AppData temp folder entirely
C. Clearing the Windows Update download cache entirely
D. Uninstalling the Windows Update feature in Windows 7 and reinstalling it directly from the Microsoft website
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
An employee was arrested after it was determined that an office computer was used for illegal activity that damaged the
company. Which of the following MUST be documented on the employee\\’s computer to ensure the evidence is
admissible on court?
A. Software inventory
B. Personality identifiable information
C. Security best practices
D. Chain of custody
Correct Answer: D
Reference https://epic.org/security/computer_search_guidelines.txt

 

QUESTION 12
When moving files from a Microsoft gaming console, which of the following command line utilities is recommended to
transfer files?
A. IMAP
B. XCOPY
C. DISKPART
D. FDISK
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A company that manages its own cloud, while utilizing a third-party vendor to help manage storage, is implementing
which of the following infrastructure types?
A. Hybrid
B. Community
C. Private
D. Public
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing?
A. It permits all traffic without logging.
B. It drops all traffic.
C. It inspects all traffic.
D. It permits and logs all traffic.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall?
A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity.
B. To protect one virtual network segment from another.
C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements.
D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session.
E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks.
Correct Answer: A
The term personal firewall typically applies to the basic software that can control Layer 3 and Layer 4 access to client
machines. HIPS provides several features that offer more robust security than a traditional personal firewall, such as
host intrusion prevention and protection against spyware, viruses, worms, Trojans, and other types of malware. Source:
Cisco Official Certification Guide, Personal Firewalls and Host Intrusion Prevention Systems, p.499

 

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 4
Which protocol offers data integrity, encryption, authentication, and antireplay functions for IPsec VPN?
A. AH protocol
B. ESP protocol
C. IKEv2 protocol
D. IKEv1 protocol
Correct Answer: B
IP Security Protocol—Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is a security protocol used to provide confidentiality (encryption), data origin
authentication, integrity, optional antireplay service, and limited traffic flow confidentiality by defeating traffic flow
analysis.
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=24833andamp;seqNum=3

 

QUESTION 5
Which ports need to be active for AAA server to integrate with Microsoft AD
A. 445 and 8080
B. 443 and 389
C. 445 and 389
D. 443 and 8080
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
Split tunneling is a computer networking concept which allows a mobile user to access dissimilar security domains like a
public network (e.g., the Internet) and a local LAN or WAN at the same time, using the same or different network
connections. This connection state is usually facilitated through the simultaneous use of, a Local Area Network (LAN)
Network Interface Card (NIC), radio NIC, Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) NIC, and VPN client software
application without the benefit of access control. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Split_tunneling

 

QUESTION 7
You are configuring a NAT rule on a Cisco ASA. Which description of a mapped interface is true?
A. It is mandatory for all firewall modes.
B. It is mandatory for identity NAT only.
C. It is optional in transparent mode.
D. It is optional in routed mode.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which is a key security component of MDM deployment?
A. Using the network-specific installer package
B. Using self-signed certificates to validate the server – generate a self-signed certificate to connect to the server (Deployed
certificates; Issued certificate to the server likely)
C. Using application tunnel
D. Using MS-CHAPv2 as primary EAP method
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
When is the best time to perform an anti-virus signature update?
A. Every time a new update is available.
B. When the local scanner has detected a new virus.
C. When a new virus is discovered in the wild.
D. When the system detects a browser hook.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A
Firewalls are generally designed to be on the network perimeter and can handle dropping a lot of the non- legitimate
traffic (attacks, scans, etc.) very quickly at the ingress interface, often in hardware. An IDS/IPS are, generally speaking,
doing more deep packet inspections and that is a much more computationally expensive undertaking. For that reason,
we prefer to filter what gets to it with the firewall line of defense before engaging the IDS/IPS to analyze the traffic flow.
Source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/discussion/12428821/correct-placement-idsips- network-architecture

 

QUESTION 11
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A
Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST) is a protocol proposal by Cisco Systems as a replacement for
LEAP. The protocol was designed to address the weaknesses of LEAP while preserving the “lightweight”
implementation. Use of server certificates is optional in EAP-FAST. EAP-FAST uses a Protected Access Credential
(PAC) to establish a TLS tunnel in which client credentials are verified. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extensible_Authentication_Protocol

 

QUESTION 12
What are the primary attack methods of VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP hopping
B. Switch spoofing
C. CAM-table overflow
D. Double tagging
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13
Which command do you enter to enable authentication for OSPF on an interface?
A. router(config-if)#ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 CISCOPASS
B. router(config-router)#area 0 authentication message-digest
C. router(config-router)#ip ospf authentication-key CISCOPASS
D. router(config-if)#ip ospf authentication message-digest
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about threat actors is true?
A. They are any company assets that are threatened.
B. They are any assets that are threatened.
C. They are perpetrators of attacks.
D. They are victims of attacks.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data normalization
B. data availability
C. data protection
D. data signature
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are the three metrics, or andquot; scores,andquot; of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System
(CVSS)? (Select all that apply.)
A. Baseline score
B. Base score
C. Environmental score
D. Temporal score
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 4
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable
component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which two potions are the primary 5-tuple components? (Choose two)
A. destination IP address
B. header length
C. sequence number
D. checksum
E. source IP address
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the Exhibit. A customer reports that they cannot access your organization\\’s website. Which option is a
possible reason that the customer cannot access the website?lead4pass 210-255 exam question q6

A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial-of-service.
B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet censors.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are not components of the 5-tuple of flow in NetFlow? (Select all that apply.)
A. Source IP address
B. Flow record ID
C. Gateway
D. Source port
E. Destination port
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 8
Which CVSS metric describes the conditions that are beyond the attacker\\’s control that must exist to exploit the
vulnerability?
A. User interaction
B. Attack vector
C. attack complexity
D. privileges required
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which signature type results in a legitime alert been dismissed?
A. True negative
B. False negative
C. True Positive
D. False Positive
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following Linux file systems not only supports journaling but also modifies important data structures of the
file system, such as the ones destined to store the file data for better performance and reliability?
A. GRUB
B. LILO
C. Ext4
D. FAT32
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high. Which potential result is true?lead4pass 210-255 exam question q12

A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
Which of the following is one of the main goals of the CSIRT?
A. To configure the organization\\’s firewalls
B. To monitor the organization\\’s IPS devices
C. To minimize and control the damage associated with incidents, provide guidance for mitigation, and work to prevent
future incidents
D. To hire security professionals who will be part of the InfoSec team of the organization.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up.
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you.
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration.
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 2
Which component of the SD-Access fabric is responsible for communicating with networks that are external to the
fabric?
A. edge nodes
B. control plane nodes
C. intermediate nodes
D. border nodes
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three.)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apple Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 4
Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose two.)
A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus
B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements
C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership
D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling
E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRE tunnel to a mobility controller for policy
and application visibility
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 5
Which are two advantages of a “one switch at a time” approach to integrating SD-Access into an existing brownfield
environment? (Choose two.)
A. appropriate for campus and remote site environment
B. allows simplified testing prior to cutover
C. ideal for protecting recent investments while upgrading legacy hardware
D. involves the least risk of all approaches
E. opens up many new design and deployment opportunities
F. allows simplified roll back
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.)
A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SE, you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than contributing to demo
innovation.
B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations.
C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details.
D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach.
E. During a demo, you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 7
What are the three foundational elements required for the new operational paradigm? (Choose three.)
A. centralization
B. assurance
C. application QoS
D. multiple technologies at multiple OSI layers
E. policy-based automated provisioning of network
F. fabric
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 8
Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform?
A. single sign-on
B. IPv6 transport (WAN)
C. 2-factor authentication
D. license enforcement
E. reporting
F. non-Ethernet interfaces
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs
B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices
C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set
D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks
E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 10
What should you do if you are looking at a strategic win with a customer and the customer wants to examine Cisco ISE
for longer than a few weeks?
A. Give them some of our flash files that can be played on any browser.
B. Set them up with an account on a Cisco UCS server that hosts ISE.
C. Set them up with a dCloud account.
D. Give them our ISE YouTube videos.
E. Provide them with a downloadable POV lit.
F. Point them to our dCloud demo library.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.)
A. use of overlays
B. use of Virtual Network IDs
C. focus on user endpoints
D. use of group policy
E. use of Endpoint Groups
F. use of Scalable Group Tags
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 12
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which Cisco vEdge router offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput?
A. Cisco vEdge 5000
B. Cisco vEdge 1000
C. Cisco vEdge 2000
D. Cisco vEdge 100
Correct Answer: A

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Free test Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
In Ethernet Aggregation applications, which option is needed when the U-PE connects to an N-PE and broadband
remote access server?
A. Ethernet Multipoint Service
B. E1
C. VPLS
D. DSLAM
E. wire emulation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What does UDLD stand for?
A. UniDirectional Loop Detection
B. Unspecified Distribution Label Detection
C. Unified Distribution Label Direction
D. UniDirectional Link Detection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS on its network. The ISP is currently redesigning the network, to improve
performance and convergence. Which two IS-IS features meet the ISP requirements when changes happen on the
network? (Choose two.)
A. IP Event Dampening
B. Bidirectional Forwarding failure detection
C. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
D. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP generation exponential backoff timers
E. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
Correct Answer: DE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_isis/configuration/15-s/irs-15-s-book/irs-fscnt.html

QUESTION 4
Which two characteristics are benefits of MPLS LDP lossless MD5 session authentication? (Choose two.)
A. It allows for asymmetric passwords.
B. It uses the MPLS LDP targeted hello, which is authenticated, instead of the regular MPLS LDP hello, which cannot be
authenticated.
C. It allows you to achieve or change LDP MD5 session authentication without interrupting the LDP session.
D. It uses the MD5 method, which is a more secure authentication method than traditional MPLS LDP authentication,
which uses a cleartext method.
E. It enables authentication for UDP MPLS LDP discovery packets as well as TCP MPLS LDP label exchange
sessions.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-
os/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_ldp_lossless_md5.pdf

QUESTION 5
A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that
the service level agreement has been honored?
A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now
C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now
E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 6
Which statement about provider-independent and provider-assigned address blocks is true?
A. There is no difference.
B. PI space is not globally routable and can be used as private addressing.
C. PA space is globally routable and can be obtained from IANA by all organizations.
D. PA space is assigned by the ISP and PI space is assigned by the regional registry. Both are globally routable.
E. PI and PA blocks are both assigned by the regional registry to all organizations.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which protocol provides an alternative to the STP, which provides a way to control network loops, handle link failures,
and improve convergence time and can coexist with STP?
A. PBB-EVPN
B. IEEE 802.1ah
C. Flex links
D. E-TREE
E. REP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS
domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6
multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it?
A. IGMP snooping
B. MLD snooping
C. MLD querier
D. IGMP version 3
E. MLD version 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q9

Routers R1 and R2 have exchanged label binding information. What is preventing the labels from populating the MPLS
forwarding table?
A. MTU on the serial interface cannot accommodate labels.
B. Cisco Express Forwarding is not running.
C. The MPLS label distribution protocol is mismatched.
D. Inbound access list 100 is applied on the serial interface.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two options describe how 6RD compares to automatic 6to4 tunneling? (Choose two.)
A. 6RD provides a controlled exit point from the IPv6 Internet.
B. 6RD provides a controlled entry point to the IPv6 Internet.
C. 6RD is widely available in current OS implementations.
D. Automatic 6to4 tunneling is widely available in current OS implementations.
E. Automatic 6to4 tunneling and 6RD use a well-known IPv6 prefix.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11lead4pass 400-201 exam question q11

Refer to the exhibit AS 200 uses the CSC solution provided by AS 100 with regards to the packets originated on ABC-
Site2 going toward to ABC-Site1, how many labels are in the label stack of these packets when they cross the link
between CSC-PE2 and CS-P?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two factors are significant drivers for 5G in IoT networks? (Choose two.)
A. Programmability
B. Energy Efficiency
C. Mass Connectivity
D. Higher data rates
E. Lower Latency
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13lead4pass 400-201 exam question q13

Refer to the exhibit. Which physical interface provides the clock information?
A. Gi0/4
B. Gi0/11
C. Gi0/10
D. Gi0/5
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure an Application Firewall policy for an online shopping website called
“mycompany.com”. As a security measure, the shopping cart application is hosted on a separate directory “/mycart” on
the backend server. The engineer configured a profile to secure the connections to this shopping cart and now needs to
ensure that this profile is allied to all incoming connections to the shopping cart.
Which policy expression will accomplish this requirement?
A. http.req.url. contains(“/mycart”) and http:req.url.hostname.eq(“mycompany.com”)
B. http.req.url. contains(“/mycart”) || http:req.url.hostname.eq(“mycompany.com”)
C. http.req.header (“url”).contains (“/mycart”) || http.req.url.contains (“mycompany.com”)
D. http.req.header (“url”).contains (“/mycart”) andand http:req.url.contains (“mycompy.com”)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A Citrix Engineer needs to optimize the Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) content sent from the backend server before
being forwarded to the client. Which option can the engineer use to accomplish CSS optimization?
A. Move to Head Tag
B. Shrink to Attributes
C. Lazy Load
D. Convert to WebP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure Application Firewall to handle SQL injection issues. However, after
enabling SQL injection check, the backend server started dropping user requests.
The Application Firewall configuration is as follows:
add appfw profile Test123 –startURLAction none- denyURLAction nonecrossSiteScriptingAction none
–SQLInjectionAction log stats- SQLInjection TransformSpecialChars ON –SQLInjectionCheckSQLWildChars ON-
fieldFormatAction none
bufferOverflowAction none- responseContentType “application/octet-stream”–XMLSQLInjectionAction none-
XMLXSSAction none-XMLWSIAction none-XMLValidationAction none
What does the engineer need to change in the Application Firewall configuration?
A. Enable-XMLSQLInjectionAction none
B. Enable-XMLValidationAction none
C. Disable- SQLInjectionCheckSQLWildChars ON
D. Disable- SQLInjectionTransformSpecialChars ON
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which reason can cause fail over in a NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) High Availability pair?
A. A secondary server loses connectivity in the LAN.
B. The engineer manually forces the secondary server to shut down.
C. A primary server encounters a critical software issue.
D. A primary server does NOT receive the SNMP traps from the instances connected.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
A website hosts highly dynamic content that is frequently requested in bursts of high user access. Which configuration
will reduce traffic to the origin server while optimizing client performance?
A. –pollEveryTime NO
B. –expireAtLastByte YES
C. –flashCache YES
D. –heurExpiryParam 0
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
A Citrix Engineer is considered that malicious users could exploit a web system by sending a large cookie. Which
security check can the engineer implement to address this concern?
A. Field Formats
B. Content-type
C. Buffer Overflow
D. Start URL
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which mechanism does the NetScaler use to enable a safe and speedy data exchange between a client/server initial
TCP handshake?
A. TCP Fast Open (TFO)
B. TCP Burst Rate Control
C. TCP Hystart
D. TCP Time Stamp
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
A Citrix Engineer configures the integrated caching feature to cache both static and dynamic content, but the integrated
cache feature does NOT work as expected. Which two resources can the engineer use to troubleshoot this integrated
cache issue? (Choose two.)
A. core dump
B. dmesg
C. nstrace
D. ns.conf
E. sysctl-a
Correct Answer: CD
Reference https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler/11/optimization/integrated- caching/troubleshooting-integrated-
caching.html


QUESTION 9
Which requirement must be addressed to implement the IP Reputation feature on a NetScaler MPX appliance?
A. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to api.bcti.brightcloud.com on port 443.
B. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to wiprep-rtu.s3-us-west- 2.amazonaws.com on port 80.
C. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to api.bcss.brightcloud.com on port 80.
D. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to wiprep-rtu.s3-us-west- 2.amazonaws.com on port 443.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Which content type takes the maximum advantage of web caching mechanisms to boost performance?
A. Pseudo-Dynamic Content
B. Pseudo-Static Content
C. Static Content
D. Dynamic Content
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
A Citrix Engineer needs to configure an application firewall profile to ensure that the images uploaded on the website
are NOT malicious. The engineer needs to create a policy to filter the upload requests and ensure that they are in JPEG
format.
Which expression can the engineer use to fulfill this requirement?
A. http.req.url.endswith (“.jpeg) and and http.req.method.eq (POST)
B. http.req.url.contains (“.jpeg) and and http.req.method.eq (GET)
C. http.req.url.endswith (“.jpeg) || http.req.method.eq (GET)
D. http.req.header (“Content-Type”).contains (“image/jpeg”) || http.req.method.eq(POST)
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
A Citrix Engineer needs to ensure that all traffic to the virtual server is blocked if NONE of the bound Application Firewall
policies are matched.
Which setting can the engineer configure to meet this requirement?
A. set appfw settings –undefAction APPFW_BLOCK
B. set ns httpProfile nshttp_default_profile-dropInvalReqs DISABLED
C. set ns httpProfie nshttp_default_profile –dropInvalReqs ENABLED
D. set appfw settings –defaultProfile APPFW_BLOCK
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure the Application Firewall to do a credit card check using the command-line
interface (CLI) and configure the profile to obscure the credit card number. Which parameter will the engineer add in the
CLI to encrypt the credit card numbers in the logs?
A. -creditCardAction BLOCK
B. -creditCardMaxAllowed
C. -creditCardXOut ON
D. -doSecureCreditCardLogging ON
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is managing a Provisioning Services Farm with the following specifications:

A single Farm with one Site, with two Provisioning Services servers deployed with 8 vCPU each, which are supporting
a total of 500 target devices in production.
-The ports and threads have been configured so that each server can stream concurrently to 250 devices each.
-Due to an upcoming merger, 250 more target devices must be supported by the existing Provisioning Services farm.
-The Provisioning Services servers must handle the extra capacity while aligning to Citrix leading practices for
resiliency.
Which step should the engineer perform to accomplish these requirements?
A.
Isolate the Provisioning Services screaming traffic.
B.
Add two additional Provisioning Services servers to the Site.
C.
Maintain the existing configurations for the environment.
D.
Add one additional Provisioning Services server to the Site.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which three benefits can a Citrix Engineer achieve using the robocpy command to replicate vDisk files between storage
locations? (Choose three.)
A. It tolerates network disruptions during file transfer and continues copying after network is restored.
B. It is able to replicate files to multiple concurrent Stores using a “hub and spoke” model.
C. It preserves vDisk file time stamps.
D. It can be included in a script to automate replication at scheduled times.
E. It can be configured to use a limited amount of bandwidth for each file copy.
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 3
What is the default auto-launch behavior for published applications and desktops within a XenApp and XenDesktop
environment?
A. If a single application is published to the user, it will launch automatically.
B. No published applications or desktops launch automatically.
C. If a single desktop is published to the user, it will launch automatically.
D. All published applications launch automatically.
E. All published desktops launch automatically.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
A Citric Engineer is checking the IOPS on the local vDisk Store after setting up and configuring the environment. Which
two tools can the engineer use to check the IOPS for the Store? (Choose two.)
A. Performance Monitor
B. Process Monitor
C. Process Explorer
D. Disk Management
Correct Answer: AB
Referencehttp://www.basvankaam.com/2014/07/29/the-ultimate-iops-cheat-sheet/


QUESTION 5
Scenario: An administrator has enabled a Citrix policy called HDX Policy that enables extra compression for moving and
still images for user connections greater than 400 Kbps.
Branch Repeater VPX is then deployed to all remote offices; however, users report NO appreciable benefits.
Which change should be made to HDX Policy?
A. Session Reliability should be disabled.
B. The Branch Repeater filter should be invoked.
C. Overall session bandwidth should be added to the policy.
D. The threshold value should be increased by 100-200 Kbps.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Scenario: Currently users log in to their desktop and are prompted several times for credentials while accessing XenApp
published applications. The XenApp Administrator is asked to configure pass-through authentication to ensure that
users only log in to their desktop and will NOT get prompted anymore.
Which three components will need to be configured when setting up pass-through authentication? (Choose three.)
A. Web Interface.
B. ICAClient.ADM.
C. Citrix Receiver.
D. XenApp Servers.
E. Citrix User policy.
F. Citrix Single sign-on.
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 7
Users complain that it is taking longer to access applications now than it did last week.
What is the best way to determine what changed from last week to this week?
A. Review Configuration Logging data.
B. ReviewEdgeSight troubleshooting data.
C. Review EdgeSight Active Application Monitoring data.
D. Review published application properties from a previous version of the datastore with the current version.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Scenario: All users connect from thin clients to a XenApp hosted desktop. Recently, the Order Entry team has been
printing all documents in color. A session printers policy has been created and applied to this user group. How can the
XenApp Administrator ensure that these printers default to a setting of monochrome?
A. Modify the Printer Properties Retention Policy.
B. Change the universal driver preference policy to default to PCL4.
C. Modify the existing session printing policy with the required printer settings.
D. Adjust the Citrix Universal Printer default settings in the registry of the XenApp servers.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
What happens when no free RAM is available with the `Cache in device RAM with overflow on hard disk\\’ write cache
option?
A. New writes are moved to the overflow disk on the target device.
B. Older writes are moved to the overflow disk on the target device.
C. New writes are moved to the overflow on the Provisioning Services server.
D. Older writes are moved to the overflow disk on the Provisioning Services server.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which update requires a Citrix Engineer to reverse image a vDisk?
A. Target device software
B. Hypervisor tools
C. Anti-virus software
D. OS service pack
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Which three actions are necessary when using the versioning vDisk update process? (Choose three.)
A. Perform updates using a single target device.
B. Make a full copy of the vDisk.
C. Put the vDisk into Private mode.
D. Create a maintenance version of the vDisk
E. Promote the changes to production.
F. Update the properties of the production target devices to use the updated vDisk.
Correct Answer: CDE


QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is designing a Provisioning Services environment based on the following environmental
factors:
-A large number of target devices are spread over multiple subnets.
-The subnets include non-Provisioning Services machines that rely on booting over the network
-A security mandate prohibits the use of TFTP.
-The XenDesktop Setup Wizard is used to create the target devices.
Which Provisioning Services boot method is appropriate for the target devices?
A. BDM Disk Partition
B. BIOS Embedded
C. DHCP Options
D. BDM ISO
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
What is the default priority order for selecting the preferred zone in a multi-zone XenApp and XenDesktop
environment?
A. User Location; Application Home; User Home
B. User Home; Application Home; User Location
C. Application Home, User Home; User Location
D. User Location; User Home; Application Home
E. Application Home; User Location; User Home
Correct Answer: C

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Exam 98-368: Mobility and Devices Fundamentals – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-368.aspx

Skills measured

  • Understand device configurations (20-25%)
  • Understand data access and management (20-25%)
  • Understand device security (20-25%)
  • Understand cloud services (20-25%)
  • Understand enterprise mobility (20-25%)

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Latest effective Microsoft MTA 98-368 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
What is an example of the way in which a Trojan horse commonly spreads to other computers?
A. It inserts copies of itself into other computer programs
B. It traverses a network by exploiting a vulnerability
C. It pretends to be a document from a friend
D. It downloads from an infected web page
Correct Answer: D
Trojan horses are commonly found on websites that offer free software, such as shareware programs. These communal
gathering spots on the Web give Trojan horse writers a degree of anonymity along with the chance of attacking as
many
random victims as possible. Since website operators rarely have time to thoroughly examine every file posted, an
occasional Trojan horse can slip through the checking procedures unnoticed.
Reference: HOW TROJAN HORSES SPREAD
http://etutorials.org/Misc/computer+book/Part+2+Dangerous+Threats+on+the+Internet/Chapter+8+Trojan
+Horses-+Beware+of+Geeks+Bearing+Gifts/HOW+TROJAN+HORSES+SPREAD/


QUESTION 2
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. The “Simple Spaces” resiliency
type in Windows 8.1 Storage Spaces requires at least five drives in order to protect a system from a single-drive failure.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. two-way mirror
C. Parity Spaces
D. three-way mirror
Correct Answer: D
Two-way mirror spaces require at least two drives, and three-way mirror spaces require at least five.
Mirror spaces are designed for increased performance and protect your files from drive failure by keeping more than
one copy. Two-way mirror spaces make two copies of your files and can tolerate one drive failure, while three-way
mirror spaces can tolerate two drive failures.
Reference: Storage Spaces: FAQ http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-8/storage-spaces-pools


QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Microsoft Azure storage
solutions replicates “four” copies of your data within a single region. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes
the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes
the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. two
C. three
D. six
Correct Answer: C
Geo-redundant storage (GRS). Geo-redundant storage is enabled for your storage account by default when you create
it. GRS maintains six copies of your data. With GRS, your data is replicated three times within the primary region, and is
also replicated three times in a secondary region hundreds of miles away from the primary region, providing the highest
level of durability.
Reference: Introduction to Microsoft Azure Storage https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/storage-
introduction/


QUESTION 4
Which Microsoft Intune Company Portal App platform requires IT deployment?
A. Android
B. Windows Phone 8.1
C. iOS
D. Windows RT
Correct Answer: B
Windows Intune Company Portal for Windows Phone 8/8.1 requires IT deployment Incorrect answers:
Not A: Android requires Direct User Installation.
Not C: iOS requires Direct User Installation.
Not D: Windows 8.x (x86/x64 and RT) supports both IT deployment and Direct User Installation.
Reference: Windows Intune Company Portals for iOS and Android Now Available
http://blogs.technet.com/b/windowsintune/archive/2013/11/25/windows-intune-company-portals-for-ios- and-android-
now-available.aspx


QUESTION 5
Which type of information about users does biometrics evaluate?
A. phrases a user has memorized
B. where a user is located
C. physical characteristics of a user
D. objects a user carries with him or her
Correct Answer: C
Biometrics refers to authentication techniques that rely on measurable physical characteristics that can be automatically
checked.
Note: There are several types of biometric identification schemes: face: the analysis of facial characteristics fingerprint:
the analysis of an individual\\’s unique fingerprints hand geometry: the analysis of the shape of the hand and the length
of the fingers retina: the analysis of the capillary vessels located at the back of the eye iris: the analysis of the colored
ring that surrounds the eye\\’s pupil signature: the analysis of the way a person signs his name. vein: the analysis of
pattern of veins in the back if the hand and the wrist voice: the analysis of the tone, pitch, cadence and frequency of a
person\\’s voice. Reference: http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/B/biometrics.html


QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. When BitLocker is enabled and
and protecting a local drive, Trusted Platform Module (TPM) provides “pre- start system integrity verification for system
and operating system drives”. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No
change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. 256-bit encryption that uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. a location that stores recovery keys for removable drives
D. boot sector mapping for the startup process
Correct Answer: C
Computers that incorporate a TPM have the ability to create cryptographic keys and encrypt them so that they can be
decrypted only by the TPM. This process, often called “wrapping” or “binding” a key, can help protect the key from
disclosure. Each TPM has a root “wrapping” key, called the Storage Root Key (SRK), which is stored within the TPM
itself. The private portion of a key created in a TPM is never exposed to any other component, software, process, or
person.
Reference: Windows Trusted Platform Module Management Step-by-Step Guide https://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/cc749022%28v=ws.10%29.aspx


QUESTION 7
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. You have a Windows 8.1
computer in a WorkGroup. To share the C:\Work folder and make it available to offline users, you need to use the
“public” share option. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is
needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. advanced
C. HomeGroup
D. basic
Correct Answer: B
In the advanced sharing dialog box Click on “Caching” button. In “Offline settings” dialog box, you can set up caching for
files and programs which are offline.lead4pass 98-368 exam question q7You have the following options:
i) Only the files and programs that users specify are available offline: If you select this option then, users specify the files
and programs which can be accessed offline. It is the default option. ii) No files or programs from the share are
available
offline: If you select this option then, caching will be turned off.
iii) All files and programs that users open from the share are automatically available offline: If you select this option then,
caching is turned on for all files and programs and they can be accessed offline.
Check option “Optimize for performance”. lead4pass 98-368 exam question q7-1Reference: How to set advanced sharing options, custom permissions, caching for folder in Windows 7?
http://www.moreprocess.com/operating-systems/windows-7/how-to-set-advanced-sharing-options-custom- permissions-
caching-forfolder-in-windows-7


QUESTION 8
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. “The Windows Store” allows
users of Windows 8 and Windows 8.1 computers to view and install applications that the users\\’ administrators make
available to them. The computers must be attached to the domain, and the user must be logged in with domain
credentials. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If
the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Microsoft SharePoint
C. The Microsoft Intune Company Portal App
D. The System Center Configuration Manager Company Portal App
Correct Answer: D
The System Center Configuration Manager Company Portal app allows users of Windows 8, Windows 8.1 and Windows
10 machines to view and install applications made available to the user by their administrators. The machine must be
managed by Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager, or later, with the agent installed.
End User Machines requirements:
*
Windows 8 Pro, Windows 8 Enterprise, Windows 8.1 Pro, Windows 8.1 Enterprise, Windows 10 Pro or Windows 10
Enterprise
*
Machine must be domain-joined
*
User must be logged on with domain credentials
*
System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager (or later) client agent must be installed Reference: System Center
Configuration Manager Company Portal App https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/download/details.aspx?id=40795


QUESTION 9
You manage 200 desktop computers at your school\\’s main computer lab.
A critical update was released.
You need to determine if the update was installed on one of the computers in the lab.
What should you do?
A. View the Event Viewer Security log
B. Check System Status in Control Panel
C. View Windows update history
D. Go to the System Action Center
Correct Answer: C
Follow these steps to see which Windows updates are installed on your computer.
1.
Open Windows Update by clicking the Start button Picture of the Start button. In the search box, type Update, and then,
in the list of results, click Windows Update.
2.
In the left pane, click View update history.
Reference: See which Windows updates are installed http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/which-windows-
updates-installed#1TC=windows-7


QUESTION 10
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. If you need to make storage
space available for an update on a Windows Phone 8.1 device, you should use “Action Center” to move installed
programs to and other data from the phone to the SD card. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the
statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the
statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. File Explorer
C. Phone Update
D. Storage Sense
Correct Answer: D
To uninstall apps and games or move them to an SD card using Storage Sense You can uninstall apps and games to
free up space on your phone, or move them to an SD card (if you have one installed).
1.
In the App list, go to Storage Sense Storage Sense Tile.
2.
Go to Phone > Apps+games.
3.
Tap an app or game file, and then tap Uninstall or Move to SD.
Reference: Make room on my phone to update it https://www.windowsphone.com/en-us/how-to/wp8/basics/make-room-
on-my-phone-to-update-it


QUESTION 11
Which is a feature Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)?
A. manages Digital Rights Media (DRM) for digital media
B. provides a permissions system that works with any cloud-based storage solution
C. manages share and file permissions on all servers in enterprise
D. allow users to define who can open, modify, print, or forward a document
Correct Answer: D
Windows Rights Management Services (also called Rights Management Services, Active Directory Rights Management
Services or RMS) is a form of Information Rights Management used on Microsoft Windows that uses encryption and a
form of selective functionality denial for limiting access to documents such as corporate e-mail, Word documents, and
web pages, and the operations authorized users can perform on them. Companies can use this technology to encrypt
information stored in such document formats, and through policies embedded in the documents, prevent the protected
content from being decrypted except by specified people or groups, in certain environments, under certain conditions,
and for certain periods of time.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Active_Directory_Rights_Management_Services


QUESTION 12
Your new Windows 8.1 computer is connected to your home wireless network. You want to share music and photos on
your new computer with other members of your family. You want to avoid setting up separate user accounts for each
member of your family. A single password for all the shared files will suffice.
Which Windows 8.1 networking feature satisfies these requirements?
A. Network Discovery
B. HomeGroup
C. Virtual Private Network
D. Broadband (PPPoE)
Correct Answer: B
A homegroup makes it easier to share files and printers on a home network. You can share pictures, music, videos,
documents, and printers with other people in your homegroup. Other people can\\’t change the files that you share,
unless you give them permission to do so.
Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/what-is-a-homegroup


QUESTION 13
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. In order to install Microsoft
Intune client software on a computer, you need to be a member of that computer\\’s “Administrators” group. Instructions:
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Remote Management users
C. Power users
D. Remote Desktop users
Correct Answer: A
The account that installs the Intune client software must have local administrator permissions to that computer.
Reference: Requirements for Microsoft Intune https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn646950.aspx

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The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to install and configure systems to secure applications, networks, and devices; perform threat analysis and respond with appropriate mitigation techniques; participate in risk mitigation activities; and operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws, and regulations. The successful candidate will perform these tasks to support the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

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Latest effective CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A security analyst accesses corporate web pages and inputs random data in the forms. The response received includes
the type of database used and SQL commands that the database accepts. Which of the following should the security
analyst use to prevent this vulnerability?
A. Application fuzzing
B. Error handling
C. Input validation
D. Pointer dereference
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A database backup schedule consists of weekly full backups performed on Saturday at 12:00 a.m. and daily differential
backups also performed at 12:00 a.m. If the database is restored on Tuesday afternoon, which of the following is the
number of individual backups that would need to be applied to complete the database recovery?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A web application is configured to target browsers and allow access to bank accounts to siphon money to a foreign
account.
This is an example of which of the following attacks?
A. SQL injection
B. Header manipulation
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Flash cookie exploitation
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
During a third-party audit, it is determined that a member of the firewall team can request, approve, and implement a
new rule-set on the firewall.
Which of the following will the audit team most l likely recommend during the audit out brief?
A. Discretionary access control for the firewall team
B. Separation of duties policy for the firewall team
C. Least privilege for the firewall team
D. Mandatory access control for the firewall team
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A security administrator suspects that a DDoS attack is affecting the DNS server The administrator accesses a
workstation with the hostname of workstation01 on the network and obtains the following output from the if config
command:lead4pass sy0-501 exam question q5The administrator successfully pings the DNS server from the workstation. Which of the following commands should be
issued from the workstation to verify the DDoS attack is no longer occurring?
A. dig www.google.com
B. dig 192.168.1.254
C. dig workstationl.com
D. dig 192.168.1.26
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
A penetration testing is preparing for a client engagement in which the tester must provide data that proves and
validates the scanning tools\\’ results.
Which of the following is the best method for collecting this information?
A. Set up the scanning system\\’s firewall to permit and log all outbound connections
B. Use a protocol analyzer to log all pertinent network traffic
C. Configure network flow data logging on all scanning system
D. Enable debug level logging on the scanning system and all scanning tools used.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
An incident responder receives a call from a user who reports a computer is exhibiting symptoms consistent with a
malware infection. Which of the following steps should the responder perform NEXT?
A. Capture and document necessary information to assist in the response.
B. Request the user capture and provide a screenshot or recording of the symptoms.
C. Use a remote desktop client to collect and analyze the malware in real time.
D. Ask the user to back up files for later recovery.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
While reviewing the security controls in place for a web-based application, a security controls assessor notices that
there are no password strength requirements in place. Because of this vulnerability, passwords might be easily
discovered using a brute force attack.
Which of the following password requirements will MOST effectively improve the security posture of the application
against these attacks? (Select two)
A. Minimum complexity
B. Maximum age limit
C. Maximum length
D. Minimum length
E. Minimum age limit
F. Minimum re-use limit
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
A security administrator has been assigned to review the security posture of the standard corporate system image for
virtual machines. The security administrator conducts a thorough review of the system logs, installation procedures, and
network configuration of the VM image. Upon reviewing the access logs and user accounts, the security administrator
determines that several accounts will not be used in production.
Which of the following would correct the deficiencies?
A. Mandatory access controls
B. Disable remote login
C. Host hardening
D. Disabling services
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
A security administrator suspects a MITM attack aimed at impersonating the default gateway is underway. Which of the
following tools should the administrator use to detect this attack? (Select two.)
A. Ping
B. Ipconfig
C. Tracert
D. Netstat
E. Dig
F. Nslookup
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a document that contains detailed information about actions that include how something will be
done, when the actions will be performed, and penalties for failure?
A. MOU
B. ISA
C. BPA
D. SLA
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
An organization has hired a penetration tester to test the security of its ten web servers. The penetration tester is able to
gain root/administrative access in several servers by exploiting vulnerabilities associated with the implementation of
SMTP, POP, DNS, FTP, Telnet, and IMAP.
Which of the following recommendations should the penetration tester provide to the organization to better protect their
web servers in the future?
A. Use a honeypot
B. Disable unnecessary services
C. Implement transport layer security
D. Increase application event logging
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
To reduce disk consumption, an organization\\’s legal department has recently approved a new policy setting the data
retention period for sent email at six months. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure this goal is met?
A. Create a daily encrypted backup of the relevant emails.
B. Configure the email server to delete the relevant emails.
C. Migrate the relevant emails into an “Archived” folder.
D. Implement automatic disk compression on email servers.
Correct Answer: A

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