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Latest Microsoft MCSD 70-488 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q10)

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You develop a reusable workflow on a development site by using SharePoint Designer.
The workflow must be made available to a test site on a different SharePoint environment.
You need to deploy and start the workflow on the test site by using Microsoft Visual Studio 2012.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-488 dumps
Explanation:
Note:
Box 1 (SharePoint Designer): Use SharePoint Designer to save the workflow as a .wsp solution package.
Visual Studio allows you to import reusable workflows created in SharePoint Designer and convert them to code workflows for use in your SharePoint sites.
Box 2(Visual Studio): Upload the solution package to the desired site.
Box 3(Visual Studio): Use Visual Studio to Active the solution package.
After a solution package (.wsp) file is uploaded and activated on the target website (that is, the SharePoint site collection), the features that are contained in the package are installed and available for activation.
Note 2:
Steps:
1. Creating a simple, reusable workflow in SharePoint Designer.
2. Exporting the SharePoint Designer reusable workflow to a .wsp file and into SharePoint.
3. Importing the .wsp file into Visual Studio by using the Import Reusable Workflow project.
4. Altering the workflow by adding code.
5. Using the imported workflow in a SharePoint site.
* When you create a declarative workflow in Microsoft SharePoint® Designer 2010, you can save the workflow as a template in a SharePoint solution package (.wsp) file. In some circumstances, you may need to import your workflow template into the Microsoft Visual Studio® 2010 development system, and repackage it as a Visual Studio project—for example, if you want to create a solution package that contains both a declarative workflow and custom-coded workflow activities.
* Visual Studio SharePoint workflow projects deploy just like other Visual Studio SharePoint projects.

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
A company’s IT department implements a Help Desk Ticketing system that involves workflow development by using SharePoint Designer and InfoPath. The Help Desk Ticket workflow involves multiple steps and tasks that have serial approvals of multiple users and groups with custom task email messages.
The Approver accidently rejects a workflow step, and the workflow has stopped. The Approver then corrects the step.
You need to continue the workflow to reflect the updated approval.
Which activity should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate action from the list of actions in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
70-488 dumps
Hot Area:
70-488 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-488 dumps
Explanation:
* Set Workflow Status
There is an action to Set Workflow Status under Core Actions, in both SharePoint 2013 Workflow platform and SharePoint 2010 Workflow platform.

QUESTION 3
You develop a SharePoint app to create an approval workflow for expense reports. The app must collect user input before starting the workflow.
You need to use ASP.NET forms in the workflow.
Which form type should you use?
A. Workflow input form
B. Workflow initiation form
C. Workflow task form
D. Workflow modification form
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
You may want your workflow to collect information from the person who starts it, and then reference this information later in the workflow. For example, imagine that you are designing a workflow that assigns a document review task. In some workflows of this kind, it might make sense to always automatically assign the review task to the same participant and to always use the same formula for calculating the due date. But in your workflow, you want the person who manually starts the workflow to specify both the reviewer and the due date. You can set this up by adding custom fields to the workflow initiation form and requiring that the workflow be started manually.
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QUESTION 4
You plan to create a workflow design by using Microsoft Visio 2013 and then import the design into SharePoint Designer 2013.
You need to ensure that you have repetition capability.
Which shape should you use?
A. Stage
B. Assign a Task
C. Step
D. Loop
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Loop shapes
Loops are a series of connected shapes that will execute as a loop, returning from the last shape in the series to the first, until a condition is satisfied.
Note: Workflows in SharePoint Designer 2013 now include the notions of stages, loops, and steps. The SharePoint 2013 Workflow template that is included in Visio 2013 also uses stages, loops, and steps as logical building blocks for creating a workflow

QUESTION 5
You plan to create a SharePoint Business Process Automation (BPA) project.
You need to process items for approval with the least amount of developer effort. 70-488 dumps
Which tool should you use?
A. Remote Event Receiver
B. Out-of-the-box workflow
C. SharePoint Designer workflow
D. Work Item Timer Job
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Workflows in SharePoint 2013 allow you to model and automate business processes. These business processes can be as simple as a document approval process with a single approver (shown in example below), as complex as customerfacing product catalog using web service calls and database support, or as formidable as virtually any structured business process, full of conditions, loops, user inputs, tasks, and custom actions.
Example: Simple SharePoint workflow
70-488 dumps
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You need to create a workflow custom activity to use in a custom action in SharePoint by using Microsoft Visual Studio 2012.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-488 dumps
Explanation:
Note:
Box 1 (Visual Studio): Add a new item named Workflow Custom Activity to the project.
Visual Studio 2012 now provides a “workflow custom activity” item type within SharePoint projects. You can use the item type to create a custom activity that you can then import as a custom action in SharePoint Designer 2013.
Box 2 (Visual Studio): Package the custom activity as a SharePoint solution package (.wsp) file.
Custom actions are packaged and deployed as SharePoint Features in SharePoint solution package (.wsp) files
Box 3: (Visual studio) Deploy the SharePoint solution package (.wsp) file.
After you create your custom workflow activity, you can then package and deploy it. After it is deployed, the custom activity can be consumed by SharePoint Designer 2013 as a custom action.
Box 4: Activate the feature
After a solution package (.wsp) file is uploaded and activated on the target website (that is, the SharePoint site collection), the features that are contained in the package are installed and available for activation. After the custom actions are activated, they are available for use in a workflow.
Box 5: Create a new custom action by using SharePoint Designer.
* SharePoint Designer provides a collection of workflow actions that are available through the Workflow Designer user interface (UI). Although the range of workflow actions that are included in SharePoint Designer) is extensive, it is nevertheless finite. In some cases, you may need to model a business process whose requirements are not met by the existing library of workflow actions that are available in SharePoint Designer. Recognizing that business processes often have specialized requirements, SharePoint 2013 lets you create custom workflow actions. You can develop these custom actions by using Visual Studio, and then package and deploy them to SharePoint. At that point, the custom action becomes available to workflow authors in SharePoint Designer, exactly as if it were among the library of existing actions.

QUESTION 7
Contoso uses a SharePoint site that contains subsites. Each subsite represents different projects. Each project site is based on a team site template and stores information and documents. Contoso has five teams: Manufacturing, Sales, Administration, Marketing, and IT.
You must create a different look and feel for each team site such that any visitor to the site can identify the team by looking at the colors, fonts, and background image of the site.
You need to create a different look and feel for each team.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Open Contoso Corporate Microsoft PowerPoint Slides Template, save the template as ContosoCorporate.master, and then upload it to the Theme Gallery.
B. From SharePoint Designer, go to Content Types. Right-click and select Content Type Settings.
C. Get a site background image for each team and upload it to the site collection images library. Then create a new master page for each team site by using the Master Page Gallery. Set the version to 15.
D. From the Web Designer Galleries, choose Composed Looks and create a new item for each team site. Specify the title, URL of the master page, theme, background image, and font schema file.
E. On the Site Settings page in the Look and Feel section, choose Change the look.
F. Create a new font XML schema with a font specification for each team.
Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:
B:
* Content types enable site users to quickly create specialized kinds of content by using the New Item or New Document command in a list or library. Content types provide site owners a way to make sure that that content is consistent across sites. Site owners can pre-configure specific details about the content when they set up content types for a site, list, or library.
* Define content types
If your group works with several types of files, such as worksheets, presentations, and documents, you can extend the functionality of your library by enabling and defining multiple content types. Content types add flexibility and consistency across multiple libraries. Each content type can specify a template and even workflow processes. The templates act as a starting point, for formatting and any boilerplate text and for properties that apply to the documents of that type, such as department name or contract number.
C: To map a master page to a SharePoint site
1. In Site Settings for the designated site, under the Look and Feel section, choose Master Page.
2. On Site Master Page Settings, select one of the two options for the Site Master Page or System Master Page sections:
2a. Inherit site master page from parent site Choose this option if you are configuring a child SharePoint site and want to use the parent master page.
2b. Specify a master page to be used by this site and all sites that inherit from it Choose this option if you want to map a specific master page to the site, or if you want to map a specific master page for administrative pages. A drop-down box named Default or All Channels is available for you, depending on your site or system configuration, so you can select a specific master page stored in the master page gallery. Select the desired master page from the drop-down box.
3. Choose OK.
D:
* A Composed Look is made up of:
Master Pages
CSS
Color palettes
Font palettes
Background image
* This means we can package a master page with its CSS, color palettes, font palettes and background image and have it deployed in the enterprise. With Composed Looks, you can now offer your Power Users a list of branded looks and allow them to choose an appropriate look as well as giving them limited control to make changes to the colors, image or font. You could be providing the Composed Looks.

QUESTION 8
A user deploys a sandbox solution.
The user cannot activate the solution.
You need to ensure that the user can activate the solution.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Grant permission to the user to execute the solution.
B. Grant permission to the user to activate the solution.
C. Start the Microsoft SharePoint Foundation Sandboxed Code Service.
D. Start the PerformancePoint Services.
Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:
By default, sandboxed solutions are disabled. Enable sandboxed solutions on every application server on which you want to run sandboxed solutions.
Note:
To enable sandboxed solutions by using Central Administration
Verify that you have the following administrative credentials:
You must be a member of the Farm Administrators group on the computer that is running the SharePoint Central Administration Web site.
On the home page of the Central Administration Web site, in the System Settings section, click Manage services on server.
On the Services on Server page, in the Server box, select the server on which you want to enable sandboxed solutions.
In the Microsoft SharePoint Foundation Sandboxed Code Service row, in the Action column, clickStart.
Repeat steps 3 and 4 for each server on which you want to enable sandboxed solutions.

QUESTION 9
A company uses SharePoint for internal collaboration. SharePoint is deployed on a server farm with a single front-end server, a single application server, and a dedicated database server.
You review existing Web Parts that read from and write to SharePoint lists. You find the following code in one of the utility classes and notice memory leaks in the method.
70-488 dumps
You need to ensure that there are no memory leaks in the method.
What should you do?
A. Add a finally statement and include site.Dispose ().
B. Add site.Dispose() to the catch statement.
C. Add a finally statement and include siteCollection.Dispose ();
D. Add siteCollection.Dispose() to the catch statement.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Need to manually dispose of the siteCollection instance. This can be done through a finally statement.
Note:
* Try and finally blocks or a using statement would be required to avoid potential leaks when you create a disposable object within a foreach block, as shown in the following code example. 70-488 dumps
SPWebApplication webApp = siteCollectionOuter.WebApplication;
SPSiteCollection siteCollections = webApp.Sites;
SPSite siteCollectionInner = null;
foreach (siteCollectionInner in siteCollections)
{
try //Should be first statement after foreach.
{
Console.WriteLine(siteCollectionInner.Url);
//Exception occurs here.
}
finally
{
if(siteCollectionInner != null)
siteCollectionInner.Dispose();
}
}
* Why Dispose?
Several of the Windows SharePoint Services objects, primarily the SPSite class and SPWeb class objects, are created as managed objects. However, these objects use unmanaged code and memory to perform the majority of their work. The managed part of the object is much smaller than the unmanaged part. Because the smaller managed part does not put memory pressure on the garbage collector, the garbage collector does not release the object from memory in a timely manner. The object’s use of a large amount of unmanaged memory can cause some of the unusual behaviors described earlier. Calling applications that work with IDisposable objects in Windows SharePoint Services must dispose of the objects when the applications finish using them. You should not rely on the garbage collector to release them from memory automatically.

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
You troubleshoot the sandbox solutions that your team builds.
You need to redeploy a sandbox solution. You also need to identify which process must be debugged.
Where should you redeploy the solution, and which process should you debug? (To answer, drag the appropriate statements to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each statement may be used once, more than once, or not at
all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-488 dumps
Explanation:
Box 1: SPUCWorkerProcess.exe
* The Visual Studio debugger usually attaches to the Windows SharePoint Services process (w3wp.exe). If the project type lets you change the Sandboxed Solution property and its value is set to true, then the debugger attaches to a different process (SPUCWorkerProcess.exe).
* Why Sandboxed Solutions?
In WSS 3.0, solutions could be deployed only to the farm level. This meant that potentially harmful or destabilizing solutions could be deployed that affected the whole Web farm and all of the other site collections and applications that run under it. However, by using sandboxed solutions, you can deploy your solutions to a subarea of the farm, a specific site collection. To provide additional protection, the solution’s assembly is not loaded into the main IIS process (w3wp.exe).
Instead, it is loaded into a separate process (SPUCWorkerProcess.exe). This process is monitored and implements quotas and throttling to protect the farm from sandboxed solutions that perform harmful activities, such as running tight loops that consume CPU cycles.
Box 2: Solution Gallery
The solution gallery is a document library stored in the root Web of the SharePoint site. The solution gallery replaces site templates and supports solution packages. When a SharePoint solution package (.wsp) file is uploaded, it is processed as a sandboxed solution.

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[2018 New Microsoft Dumps] Useful Microsoft Dynamics AX MB6-892 Dumps Exam Practice Update Free Try Youtube Demo (Q1-Q20)

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Useful Microsoft Dynamics AX MB6-892 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers Update (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
You are a purchasing agent.
Your company agrees on a purchase price with a supplier. You create a purchase agreement.
Which two tasks can you perform with the agreement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Createa release order when no commitment is defined for quantity of a product.
B. Create purchase agreements based on quality or weight.
C. Define a validity period for the purchase agreement.
D. Put purchase agreements on hold during ordering.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
You are working with a vendor who supplies you with apparel and sporting good products. You are negotiating a new purchase agreement with the vendor.
The agreement terms you have arranged with the vendor are for a 3 percent discount on all of the sporting good products when the order volume over the next month is at least 50,000 USD.
Which commitment type should you use?
A. product quantity
B. product value
C. product category value
D. value
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are the controller at Contoso, Ltd. You have configured the chart of accounts for the company and included two main accounts that should be used for posting vendor account balances. One is used for regular external vendor accounts, and the other is used for intercompany vendor accounts.
You need to configure the system to use these two main accounts.
What should you do?
A. Create a vendor posting profile.
B. Create a journal name.
C. Create an inventory posting profile.
D. Create an allocation journal.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are implementing Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for a new customer.
You need to configure the costing methodology to be a Weighted Average for all items.
What should you configure?
A. product dimension groups
B. item model groups
C. tracking dimension groups
D. item groups
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to configure commissions to be calculated on sales, only after all discounts are taken on the line items of a sales order.
What should you use?
A. The Sales order journal
B. The Price/discount agreement journal
C. The Commission percentage field
D. The Discount field
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You need to set up locations for a warehouse that will store finished goods for one of your company’s divisions.
What are three possible details that you can specify for the locations? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The maximum number of pallets
B. The physical dimensions
C. The inventory dimensions
D. The maximum dimensions of the items
E. The maximum weight that can be stored
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 7
You need to ensure that a shipment from a vendor can be accepted into inventory, even if the quantity of the product received is greater than the amount ordered. MB6-892 dumps
What should you configure?
A. The inventory and warehouse management parameters
B. The procurement and sourcing parameters
C. The product Information management parameters
D. The accounts payable parameters
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are presenting sales quotations to your client for review.
What are the two statuses that can be selected on an open sales quotation? Each correct answer presents
a complete solution.
A. Order status is sent.
B. Run in the background is selected.
C. Order status is confirmed.
D. Reason lost or cancelled is selected.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You are the purchasing administrator for your company.
You need to create a purchasing policy.
Which two policy rules should be selected to manage employee access to specific categories in the procurement category hierarchy and to define rules that control the requisition creation process? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Category access policy rule.
B. Replenishment category access policy rule.
C. Requisition purpose rule
D. Purchase requisition control rule
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
You are the accounts receivable manager. You need to match customer invoices to payments that will be recorded by searching invoice lines that meet selected criteria.
Which search option should you use?
A. Bridging method
B. Settlements
C. Create lines
D. Payment proposal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are the purchasing agent for your company.
You need to create a request for quotation (RFQ) for a product that is not in the item drop- down list.
Which type of line item should you create?
A. Category
B. Open
C. Solicitation
D. Item
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to register a pallet controlled item.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Complete a pallet transport.
B. Post an arrival journal.
C. Use the Direct registration function on the Arrival overview form.
D. Use the registration function on the order line.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
You plan to create a sales order for an item.
Currently, you do not have the item on hand, but you have a purchase order for the item.
You need to ensure that the item can be reserved against the purchase order.
What should you do?
A. From the Accounts payable parameters form, set Reservation to Automatic.
B. From the Inventory and warehouse management parameters form, select Reserve items automatically.
C. From the Accounts receivable parameters form, set Reservation to Automatic.
D. From the Inventory and warehouse management parameters form, select Reserve ordered items.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
The bill of exchange process needs to be set up on your new Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade system.
Which three configuration steps are required? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. journal names for eachstage
B. bridging account
C. posting profiles
D. remittance format
E. a method of payment
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
You need to add freight and handling charges when you enter a new purchase order.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Create a journal for the freight and handling charges.
B. Add two additional lines to the purchase order, one for the freight service item and one for the handling service items.
C. Add two additional supplementary items to the purchase order, one for freight and one for handling.
D. Add two charges transactions that each has a charges code.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 16
You are an accounts receivable manager.
Your company wants its top 10 customers in August to receive a best-selling product at a reduced price.
You need to establish a price.
Which two actions should you perform to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for this task? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set up the item sales price in the released product table.
B. Set up a Customer group for the 10 customers to be assigned to.
C. Set up a price/discount journal.
D. Set up a Price/Discount group for the 10 customers.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
Your department manager wants an estimate of the actual invoice amounts that you will bill for a customer this month. However, the department manager does not want these amounts posted.
From which two types of invoices can you create a pro forma invoice? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. subledger
B. customer
C. payment schedule
D. free text
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
You are an order processor at Contoso, Ltd.
You create a new sales order for a wholesale company. Later, the sales manager at Contoso, Ltd. for the wholesales account informs you that their company has a sales agreement for a 10 percent discount on apparel items. MB6-892 dumps
You need to ensure that the discount is applied correctly to the order and that the order updates the fulfillment of the sales agreement.
What should you do?
A. Put the sales order on hold, and then create a release from the sales agreement.
B. Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Price details option under the Sales orderline button on the sales order.
C. Delete the sales order, and then create a new sales order by using the Copy from journal function.
D. Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Create link option under the Update line button on the sales order.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You are the purchasing agent for your company. You create a request for quotation (RFQ) and send it to vendors.
You need to categorize the responses you receive from the vendors.
What should you set up?
A. Purchase agreement classification
B. Results view
C. Reason codes
D. Vendor reply status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You are the accounts payable manager for your company. You and the vendor agree that defective items will be returned with a reference to the original purchase order.
You need to create a vendor credit note.
What are three methods that can be used? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Copy the original purchase invoice.
B. Createa purchase order with the purchase type blanket order.
C. Create a purchase order with the purchase type journal.
D. Create a purchase order with the purchase type returned order.
E. Create a purchase order line for a negative quantity.
Correct Answer: CDE

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Latest Citrix 1Y0-A16 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers Update (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking at a project to expand and upgrade their Citrix environment to meet their current and future business needs. The main business requirement for this project is to provide secure and reliable access to company-owned applications for all the current and future staff, including contractors around the world.
Which two issues present a risk to the project and its deadlines based on the assessment document? (Choose two.)
A. Print jobs intermittently fail
B. A dispersed user community
C. Wide range of device types in use
D. Unpredictable timing and size of acquisitions
E. External access only through an intermittently failing Secure Gateway
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which three sections should an architect incorporate into the Project Initiation Document (PID) to ensure that the project meets the business and technical requirements of Healthy Helping Hands? (Choose three.)
A. Risk Log
B. Stage Plan
C. Project Scope
D. Detailed Design
E. Resource Requirements
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
Given the three user types in the Healthy Helping Hands environment, task workers, mobile workers and knowledge works, which two user groups would be classified as task workers? (Choose two.)
A. Sales
B. Engineers
C. Marketing
D. Manufacturing
E. Customer Service
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
Given the three user types in the Healthy Helping Hands environment, task workers, mobile workers, and knowledge workers, which two user groups would be classified as knowledge workers? (Choose two.)
A. Sales
B. Marketing
C. Engineers
D. Manufacturing
E. Customer Service
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Based on the assessment document, for which user group may an administrator need to use ICA session policies to control session bandwidth?
A. Sales
B. Finance
C. Marketing
D. Customer Service
E. Human Resources
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Given the three user types in the Healthy Helping Hands environment, task workers, mobile workers and knowledge workers, which two user groups would be classified as mobile workers? (Choose two.)
A. IT staff
B. Sales staff
C. HR employees
D. Marketing personnel
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Scenario: As Healthy Helping Hands continues to expand, the demands placed on the current solution will increase significantly. As such, an architect must assess the current hardware to identify constraints against the company’s future growth. 1Y0-A16 dumps
Which statement best describes a current hardware constraint?
A. Hard drive capacity cannot be expanded due to space limitations.
B. Existing server processors are not capable of supporting 64-bit architecture.
C. The existing 1Gbps server NIC speed is insufficient for home user connectivity.
D. Server memory is at or above the maximum supported by the current hardware and operating system.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Printing security is a key requirement for the Human Resources department of Healthy Helping Hands.
Which printing policy setting should be configured to enhance security for the HR department?
A. All User Printers
B. Session Printers only
C. User’s Default Printer only
D. Local (Non-Network) Printers only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The architect is deciding how to best deliver the Healthy Helping Hands application suite.
Based on the information given in the assessment document, which application should be streamed to desktops rather than published?
A. Finance application suite
B. Engineer’s CAD application
C. Manufacturing ERP application suite
D. HR PositivelyPeople application suite
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
During the data collection and analysis phase of the project, architects discovered that certain user groups require access to several versions of Internet Explorer.
How should the architect design a deployment scenario for older versions of Internet Explorer that must be maintained indefinitely in the environment?
A. Create one virtual machine hosted application for each Internet Explorer version and publish the applications.
B. Create one streaming application for each Internet Explorer version and stream the applications directly to user devices.
C. Create one application isolation environment for each Internet Explorer version and publish the applications with XenApp.
D. Create application silos by installing different versions of Internet Explorer to different XenApp servers and publish the applications with XenApp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Scenario: Before upgrading or expanding the Healthy Helping Hands environment, an architect wants to be sure that all current application issues are identified so they can be addressed.
Based on the assessment document, which two tools would be best suited to ensure all current issues have been identified before moving forward with the project? (Choose two.)
A. EdgeSight
B. Resource Manager
C. Windows Event Logs
D. Windows Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Based on the assessment document, which two actions must the architect take regarding Citrix licensing in order to properly assess the environment? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the IIS Service.
B. Restart the Citrix Licensing Service.
C. Add the REPORTLOG keyword to the options file.
D. Create a file called REPORT.LOG in C:\Program Files\Citrix\MyFiles.
E. Select a network share to which the local system account has write access.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Scenario: The IT manager at Healthy Helping Hands decided to pilot EdgeSight on the existing Presentation Server 4.0 farm to gather information regarding the slow logon times that Human Resources users are experiencing. The administrators completed the following tasks:
1. Installed the EdgeSight Server on a Windows Server 2003 SP1 server with the appropriate software versions for all prerequisites documented in the EdgeSight Installation Guide
2. Installed the EdgeSight Web Server, SQL Server 2005 SP2 Database with Reporting Services and EdgeSight console on a single server for the pilot
3. Installed the EdgeSight agent on all eight of the servers in the Presentation Server 4.0 farm
4. Configured EdgeSight to use the default worker and agent settings
5. Verified that all eight of the agents reported to the EdgeSight console within the first 24 hours after installation
After seven days, the data is examined and the reports show the following:
Session information, such as Logon Time and Session ID, is captured and reported for all the user sessions. Detailed information about the logon experience, such as the Profile Load Time (PLSD) or Logon Script Execution time (LSESD), is displayed in the reports.
Which statement accurately describes why the End-User Experience Metrics (EUEM) is unavailable through the default reports on the EdgeSight Console?
A. These metrics are available but must be accessed by querying the agent’s local Firebird database directly.
B. These metrics are available in the EdgeSight SQL database; a custom report can be created through Reporting Services.
C. The Human Resource users are accessing the Presentation Server 4.0 environment using an unsupported Citrix plug-in that does not send the metrics.
D. The server running Presentation Server 4.0 does not support the collection of these metrics because the server is unaware of the EUEM virtual ICA channel.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
— Exhibit —
1Y0-A16 dumps
— Exhibit —
Scenario: Healthy Helping Hands has created a new pilot XenApp 5 Platinum Edition farm with applications delivered to 25 pilot users. The pilot farm includes all the applications that were previously published to the HR users and some additional applications to support Manufacturing. During the pilot week of September 14th, the users of the PositivelyPeople application reported that the application was responding slowly.
Fortunately, EdgeSight had been installed and configured in the pilot farm and was recording data during the pilot. Attached in the exhibit is the information gathered from the Transaction Network Delay report from EdgeSight.
Which theory effectively explains the data that is presented in the report?
A. The XenApp server is waiting on another host to respond, most likely the server hosting the PositivelyPeople database.
B. The XenApp server is waiting on the network packet queue to clear as evidenced by the 9ms network latency being reported.
C. The XenApp server is reaching maximum capacity, and the lack of physical resources on the XenApp server is causing the response delay.
D. The Network Delay on 9/19/2009 is probably the source of complaints from the HR Users.
An average network latency of almost 9ms is unacceptable.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Healthy Helping Hands has decided to replace the PCs used by the Customer Service and Manufacturing teams with new thin clients, as the PCs are running operating systems which are no longer covered by extended support.
How many of these thin clients will need to be purchased?
A. 50
B. 250
C. 3000
D. 3050
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
How should an architect recommend delivering applications to the Manufacturing users at Healthy Helping Hands?
A. Publish the applications to new PCs.
B. Publish the applications to their existing devices.
C. Use XenDesktop to deliver disk-based thin clients.
D. Publish the applications to new diskless thin clients.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking into making New York and San Francisco their two principal sites, each capable of failing over to the other. 1Y0-A16 dumps This will be one of the major requirements for the Citrix infrastructure design.
Which two backend infrastructure components need improvements in disaster recovery support as part of this project? (Choose two.)
A. HP SAN storage
B. User Profile server
C. PositivelyPeople database
D. Terminal Services license server
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
Which two components need to be included in the updated disaster recovery plan, given the current Disaster Recovery Plan as outlined in the assessment document? (Choose two.)
A. EdgeSight database
B. User data directories
C. Citrix XenApp servers
D. User profile directories
E. PositivelyPeople database
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 19
Scenario: In order to plan for the possibility of a pandemic flu, the HR department for Healthy Helping Hands has asked an architect to test whether the infrastructure could accommodate 300 key or “at risk” workers working from home over a two week period.
Based on the information in the assessment document, can the existing infrastructure support such a situation?
A. No, there are insufficient licenses available to support this requirement.
B. Yes, sufficient capacity exists to support this temporary requirement; no action is required.
C. No, two additional servers are required to support the remote workers during this two week period.
D. No, the Secure Gateway/Web Interface server has insufficient capacity to support this requirement.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Scenario: As part of a government initiative to provide support to the general public during a global pandemic, Healthy Helping Hands is required to contribute to a national helpline service. This will require an additional 500 to 2000 users to be logged into the Healthy Helping Hands applications. To comply with this requirement, Healthy Helping Hands will need to provide the additional capacity within 24 hours of the request. The additional capacity must also be fully secure and fault tolerant.
Based on the current infrastructure, how would the architect meet the requirement in this scenario?
A. The current infrastructure would only require publishing additional applications in the current XenApp farm.
B. To meet capacity requirements, XenDesktop would be required to allow additional connections to be made.
C. The current infrastructure would only require the Secure Gateway/Web Interface components to be upgraded.
D. To meet capacity requirements a Provisioning Services server would be required to bring additional server capacity online when required.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which two benefits are achieved through database sharding within the Cisco APIC cluster? (Choose two.)
A. active-standby high availability
B. scalability
C. compression
D. reliability
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which overlay protocol does Cisco AVS for vSphere use to allow the ACI fabric to extend over an existing network infrastructure?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. NVGRE
D. VXLAN
E. OTV
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which three main problems was a host overlay system designed to address? (Choose three.)
A. workload mobility
B. simplified and automated workload provisioning
C. multitenancy at scale
D. integrate physical and virtual networking
E. increase visibility to traffic flows
F. better root cause analysis capabilities
G. consolidate IT infrastructure teams
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
Which two benefits of ACI help improve the time required to deploy an application? (Choose two.)
A. enabling software developers to create development environments similar to production
B. eliminating the need for expensive Layer 4 to Layer 7 service appliances
C. eliminating IP addressing from software stacks
D. evolving the IT model from manual workflows to an application model that automates deployment,
operations, and visibility
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which two ACI features assist with application service-level assurance? (Choose two.)
A. tenant health scores
B. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service integration
C. Cisco APIC database sharding
D. fabric health scores
E. QoS
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which ACI construct provides the policy-based definition that comprises the communication, performance, and security needs of an application?
A. service profile
B. endpoint group
C. application service profile
D. application network profile
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
The use of the Cisco Bi-Di 40G transceiver provides cost effective transition to a 40G ACI fabric through transmission over which cabling plant?
A. Category 6a copper
B. single pair of OM3/OM4 MM fiber
C. single pair of SM fiber
D. Twinax copper
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which method does ACI fabric dynamic load balancing use to provide optimal balancing of flows across the fabric? 600-509 dumps
A. Flows are dynamically allocated according to congestion at the leaf.
B. Flows are dynamically allocated according to hop-by-hop congestion in the fabric.
C. Flows are dynamically allocated according to link BER.
D. Flows are distributed in per packet round-robin.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which four benefits are provided by ACI services to achieve business and technical objectives? (Choose four.)
A. Identify and address technical and operational readiness to effectively deploy this architecture to support your target use cases.
B. Simplify operations through integration at the infrastructure, systems, and management levels.
C. Protect capital and operational investments while gaining a simple transition path from existing environments to architecture based on Cisco ACI.
D. Allow centralized application-based policy automation, programmability, and visibility into physical and virtual networks from a single point of management.
E. Allow centralized management and control over all Cisco platforms and non Cisco platforms.
F. Simplify and reduce the number of applications for better DevOps support.
G. Ability to design, install, and manage access/aggregation/core networks.
H. Emphasize technical objectives to best meet business requirements.
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 10
Which three options are major components of the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)
A. spine switches
B. application network profiles
C. leaf switches
D. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E. OpenFlow controller
F. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service devices
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
Which four options are important functions offered by the Cisco APIC? (Choose four.)
A. fault and event management
B. hypervisor, storage, and computing management
C. Layer 3 through 5 services integration
D. statistical collection and analysis
E. performance management
F. nonblocking data plane
G. 1.5:1 oversubscribed ports
H. BGP and OSPF routing protocol support
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 12
Before you design an ACI fabric, it is important to understand existing application interactions. If you do not understand them entirely, which approach can you use?
A. Design a classic routing configuration in which everybody can talk to anybody as the equivalent to a contract called “anyany” that all EPGs provide and consume.
B. Design around the Cisco ACI whitelist model using the common tenant, where, by default, two EPGs can communicate to each other in the absence of a contract.
C. Map each EPG to familiar constructs such as VLANs that provide segmentation and will apply policy application interactions.
D. Leverage advanced orchestration tools like Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud or Cisco UCS Director to document existing application interactions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You want to satisfy the business, risk, and customer requirements. Which option is a consideration when you select and design an ACI fabric?
A. the requirement for meaningful services (such as traffic load balancing, segmentation, filtering, traffic insertion, and monitoring) for workloads provided by virtual Layer 4 to Layer 7 servers
B. virtual machine mobility because moving from one server to another one would have to occur on the same leaf so that ACI can preserve virtual machine visibility and policy enforcement
C. the breakdown of virtual versus physical workloads because virtual workloads are treated preferentially in ACI
D. the requirement for a central point of management, but no centralized control plane
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What are two key concepts that Cisco onePK addresses in Software-Defined networks? (Choose two.)
A. network programmability
B. separation of control and data planes
C. device/feature abstraction
D. OpenFlow
E. BGP-LS
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Which four components should be considered when gathering business requirements for a customer project? 600-509 dumps (Choose four.)
A. alignment to corporate goals
B. compliance regulations
C. development team location
D. commitments to customers
E. supplier capabilities
F. business unit providing the developers
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 16
In the Agile software development process, which two principles align with customer communications? (Choose two.)
A. Software releases are held until quality gates are met.
B. Co-location of business-focused individuals and developers for face-to-face conversation is best.
C. Key developers should have a proxy that intercepts rapidly changing requirements.
D. Customer requirements are fully collected before development ensues.
E. Changing requirements are welcome, even late in development.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 17
Which role represents the voice of the customer in the Scrum software development framework?
A. development team
B. Scrum master
C. project wing
D. product owner
E. customer centre
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which three options are common programmability and automation requirements for the research academia, cloud service providers, and enterprise segments? (Choose three.)
A. network slicing
B. scaling multitenancy
C. resource automation and orchestration
D. harvesting network intelligence
E. service delivery
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 19
Which technology is vendor-specific?
A. Cisco onePK
B. OpenFlow
C. BGP-LS
D. OpenStack
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
If the client has equipment from multiple vendors in their network, which statement about the technologies that can be used is true?
A. Cisco onePK is a good candidate because it is vendor agnostic.
B. Cisco onePK is vendor-specific and therefore cannot control all the equipment.
C. OpenFlow is not a good candidate because it is vendor-specific.
D. OpenFlow is not a good candidate because it is only for Layer 2 switches.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest IBM certifications II 000-742 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
A customer has a single controller IBM TotalStorage DS4300 Storage Server. What is the maximum number of expansion drawers that can be attached?
A.0
B.3
C.7
D.16
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 2
A customer has a requirement for 9 TB of data to be stored onto tape. If the customer wants the most cost-effective LTO3 solution, the best technology choice would be:
A.IBM TotalStorage 3581 Tape Autoloader.
B.IBM TotalStorage 3582 Tape Library.
C.IBM TotalStorage 3583 Tape Library.
D.IBM TotalStorage 3584 Tape Library.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 3
A customer mentions that they are evaluating Advanced Intelligent Tape (AIT) for their open server environment. Which of the following best describes AIT technology?
A.4mm
B.Linear recording
C.Helical scan recording
D.IBM TotalStorage 3592 compatible tape
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 4
A customer needs to limit the total time it takes to back up an existing database. Which of the following is NOT required to understand the customer requirements?
A.The amount of data to be backed up
B.The kind of data being backed up
C.The maximum desired time the backup process should take
D.The number of days backups are scheduled
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 5
A customer has a heterogeneous environment that is backed up using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager attached to a tape silo. Due to network congestion, the expanding data within the environment can no longer be backed up within the time available. The data growth is expected to increase rapidly over the next few months. The average recovery window for this environment is currently estimated at 72 hours. Which of the following options would resolve the network problem?
A.Install an IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500.
B.Utilize LAN free backups over the SAN.
C.Install iSCSI to improve block I/O throughput.
D.Increase the number of tape drives within the silo.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 6
A customer owns a 150 GB usable RAID 5 SCSI disk subsystem attached to a single host and wants to increase data throughput, reliability, availability, and serviceability. Cost is a significant consideration. Which of the following is most likely to satisfy all of these requirements?
A.Convert the RAID 5 subsystem to a RAID 1 subsystem.
B.Convert the existing subsystem to dual-attached SCSI.
C.Replace the existing subsystem with an IBM TotalStorage DS4000 Storage Server.
D.Replace the existing subsystem with an IBM TotalStorage DS8000 Storage Server.
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 7
A distributor is planning to open five locations, with each location requiring a local nightly backup of 500 GB of data from a Sun server. Performance and cost are key requirements. 000-742 dumps Which of the following is the best solution?
A.IBM TotalStorage 3581 Tape Autoloader
B.IBM TotalStorage 3590 Model H11 Tape Drive
C.IBM TotalStorage 3592 Model J1A Tape Drive
D.IBM TotalStorage 7205 Model 550 External SDLT320 Tape Drive
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 8
A customer is currently running a mail server application and is interested in a new storage subsystem. Which of the following will have the most impact in sizing the subsystem?
A.Record size
B.Logical volume partitioning
C.Data security
D.Number of users
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 9
A large customer environment consists of 16 Intel-based servers that support electronic mail.
The servers have exceeded their disk storage capacity and the customer would like to centralize disk storage. Which of the following solutions should be recommended?
A.IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500
B.IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller
C.IBM TotalStorage DS4000 Storage Server
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Space Management
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 10
A customer is running a SAP R/3 application using Oracle Parallel Server as the database manager on an IBM eServer pSeries server. The customer would like two servers to share the same Oracle database. Which of the following IBM storage products would NOT be recommended to meet the customer’s requirement?
A.IBM TotalStorage EXP Plus
B.IBM TotalStorage SAN Filesystem
C.IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500
D.IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 11
A customer will be using an IBM TotalStorage DS4000 Storage Subsystem. In order to provide the highest data availability for a database server, which of the following is the most appropriate hardware RAID technology to recommend?
A.RAID 1
B.RAID 5
C.RAID 10
D.RAID 50
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 12
A customer is migrating a 600 GB Oracle database from an older IBM eServer pSeries server toa new one. The data is on a 2 TB IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Storage Server (ESS) that is 80% full.
What is the easiest way to move the data to the new server?
A.Assign new LUNs to the new system, backup the data with the existing tape library, and restore it on the new system.
B.Use IBM TotalStorage ESS Specialist to assign the existing LUNs to the new server and use AIX LVM importvg to acquire the existing data.
C.Create new LUNs as targets, perform FlashCopy to those LUNs, and assign the target LUNs to the new server.
D.Create new LUNs as targets, perform Metro Mirror to those LUNs, and assign the target LUNs to the new server.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a feature of all IBM TotalStorage Ultrium tape drives?
A.Statistical Analysis and Reporting System (SARS)
B.Native switched fabric 2 Gb Fibre Channel interface
C.WORM Tape
D.64 MB buffer
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 14
After a long competitive sales cycle, the customer has decided to implement their first centralized storage solution on the IBM TotalStorage DS4500 Storage Server. To help ensure a successful installation, which of the following should be proposed as part of the solution?
A.Service Alert
B.Business Continuance Services
C.3-Year Warranty Service Upgrade
D.Planning and Implementation Services
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 15
A customer would like to integrate a Windows file server into the centralized IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) backup solution. The servers are SAN attached to an IBM Total Storage DS4500.
There is very little LAN bandwidth to spare. What should the Storage Specialist recommend?
A.Implement an IBM TSM LAN Free solution.
B.Add a larger dedicated tape drive and have IBM TSM manage it remotely.
C.Install IBM TSM for Application Servers.
D.Install the IBM TSM client and backup over the network.
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question. The customer wants to run centralized backups.
Assuming a uniform change rate for the data on all of the servers shown, which of the following nodes is the best candidate for a backup server?

A.Node A
B.Node B
C.Node C
D.Node E
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 17
When choosing between an IBM TotalStorage 3582 Tape Library and an IBM TotalStorage 3583 Tape Library for an open system environment, which requirement differentiates the two libraries?
A.Standalone or rack mounted
B.SCSI or FC attachment
C.Logical library sharing
D.Upgradeable storage slot capacity
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 18
A customer has reviewed the Storage Specialist’s proposal for a centralized disk solution supporting Sun, HP, Intel, IBM eServer pSeries and iSeries servers. 000-742 dumps The customer’s feedback indicates that the solution exceeds their budget. They also indicate that they have signed an agreement outsourcing their iSeries applications. Which of the following would be the most appropriate change to the proposal?
A.Reduce the amount of disk configured in the subsystem.
B.Reduce the amount of disk configured in the subsystem and reduce the SAN port count.
C.Reduce the amount of disk configured, change the subsystem to a NAS solution and eliminate the SAN.
D.Reduce the amount of disk configured, change the subsystem to IBM TotalStorage DS4000 and reduce the SAN port count.
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is a competitive advantage of the IBM TotalStorage DS4300 compared to the HP MSA1000?
A.FlashCopy option
B.Remote Mirroring option
C.Additional host configuration options
D.Better reliability, availability, and serviceability (RAS) characteristics
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 20
A customer has a requirement for recall of tape data. The media choice must have the longest archival life. Which of the following would be the most appropriate selection?
A.LTO
B.DLT
C.SDLT
D.3590
Correct Answers: A

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QUESTION 1
What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode environment? (Choose three.)
A. updating the pseudonode LSP
B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information
C. creating the pseudonode LSP
D. flooding LSPs over the LAN
E. election of the pseudonode
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. Anengineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp discovery targeted-hello accept command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The 2.6.6.6/32 prefix is flapping when PE1 is flapping. Which action can fix this issue?
A. On PE2, allow only redistribution from BGP into IS-IS; on PE3, allow only redistribution from IS-OS into BGP.
B. Configure all IS-IS instances as level-1-only.
C. Configure a sham link between PE2 and PE3.
D. On PE2 and PE3, reconfigure redistribute BGP into IS-IS using the metric-type external parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
When a traceroute is performed from a PC behind R2, the next hop on R1 for IPv4 is 10.0.1.2, and for IPv6 it is 2001:DB8:2:2. What is causing thus behavior? 400-201 dumps
A. GigabitEthernet2/1 has a Level 1-only adjacency. This causes it to be the preferred path for the IPv6 packets.
B. When SPF ran on R2, it calculated two equal paths to R1. It was a coincidence that than the packets choose different paths.
C. Multitopology is enabled on R2, which causes the IPv6 packets to use a different path than the IPv4 packets.
D. 2001:DB8:2::2 is on a Gigabit Ethernet interface. Because its speed is higher than Fast Ethernet, the IS-IS metric is preferred.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which MPLS TE component keeps track of the flooding and admission control?
A. MPLS TE priorities
B. RSVP
C. link attributes
D. link manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which is the main goal of BGPsec regards to improve BGP security?
A. Reduces risk of improper route propagation from unauthorized AS numbers
B. Configures BGP route verification by storing routes in a database used to validate AS numbers
C. Adds encryption to route propagation outside the iBGP AS
D. Increases legitimacy and authenticity of BGP advertisements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two models are used in MPLS TE bandwidth constraints? (Choose two)
A. mdm
B. rdm
C. bdm
D. mam
E. tern
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller node? (Choose two)
A. Neutron Layer 3 agent
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Identity Service
D. Neutron Layer 2 agent
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What are the two benefits of graceful restart? (Choose two)
A. Graceful restart allows session information recovery without disruption to the network.
B. A node can perform a graceful restart to help a neighbor recover its state. The label bindings are kept on state information, which helps the failed node recover faster and does not affect the current forward traffic.
C. Graceful restart allows a node to recover state from its neighbor when there is no RP or before the device undergoes SSO.
D. Graceful restart does not allow session information recovery.
E. During a graceful restart, the router removes any stale prefixes after a timer for stale entries expires
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about the BGP next-hop attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs do not modify the next-hop attribute.
B. By default, iBGP sessions change the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers to self address.
C. By default, the next-hop attribute is not changed when a prefix is reflected by the route reflector
D. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs change the next-hop attribute to peer address.
E. By default, iBGP sessions preserve the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that ensures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? 400-201 dumps (Choose two.)
A. IP FRR
B. NSR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. TE FRR
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
The Attribute field within the IS-IS LSP header contains which of the following flags? (Choose four)
A. IS-Type
B. Overload (LSPDBOL)
C. Pseudonode (PN)
D. Attached (ATT)
E. Fragment (Frag-Nr)
F. Partition (P)
Correct Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 13
One ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS, you want to redesign the network to improve performance and convergence, which are correct ways? (Choose two)
A. Bidirectional forwarding failure detection
B. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP…….exp backoff timers C. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
C. IP Event Dampending
D. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The prefix 10.1.1.64/28 should be advertised to the PE router, yet the prefix is not being received by the PE. Which configuration should be applied on CE in order to fix this issue?
A. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP seq 1 permit 10.1.1.64/28
B. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.128 mask 255.255.255.128
C. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP permit 10.1.1.64/28
D. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which Cisco IOS XR Virtualization technology provides full isolation between virtualized routing instances for extra control plane resources?
A. HVR
B. SVR
C. SDR
D. DRP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which router is the DIS?
A. router-22
B. router-44
C. router-33 and router-44
D. router-11
E. router-33
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which is one difference between H-VPLS and VPLS? 400-201 dumps
A. VPLS is a point-to-point Layer-2 services and H-VPLS is a multipoint Layer-2 services.
B. H-VPLS reduces signaling overhead and packet replication requirementsfor the provider edge.
C. VPLS improve scalability concerns identified on H-VPLS implementation.
D. H-VPLS connects using also other Layer-2 encapsulation such as PPP and VPLS connects using
Ethernet encapsulation only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to deploy a solution that allows for 200 DS1 s and 100 DS0s that are multiplexed to a single interface on a Cisco 7600 Series Router. Which interface type satisfies this requirement?
A. Channelized T3/E3 (DS0)
B. Channelized OC-12/STM-4
C. OC-12/STM-4
D. OC-48c/STM-16
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
In an MPLS VPN environment, the QoS marking over the MPLS backbone must be different from the one that is received from the customer. The forwarding on the egress PE is based on the marking that is set by the ingress PE. Which null label and QoS mode can achieve this?
A. MPLS explicit null with pipe mode
B. MPLS implicit null with short pipe mode
C. MPLS implicit null with uniform mode
D. MPLS explicit null with uniform mode
E. MPLS explicit null with short pipe mode
F. MPLS implicit null with pipe mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
B. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Correct Answer: B

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CAS-002 dumps
QUESTION 1
Ann, a software developer, wants to publish her newly developed software to an online store. Ann wants to ensure that the software will not be modified by a third party or end users before being installed on mobile devices. Which of the following should Ann implement to stop modified copies of her software from running on mobile devices?
A. Single sign-on
B. Identity propagation
C. Remote attestation
D. Secure code review
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A software project manager has been provided with a requirement from the customer to place limits on the types of transactions a given user can initiate without external interaction from another user with elevated privileges. This requirement is BEST described as an implementation of:
A. an administrative control
B. dual control
C. separation of duties
D. least privilege
E. collusion
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
At 10:35 a.m. a malicious user was able to obtain a valid authentication token which allowed read/write access to the backend database of a financial company. At 10:45 a.m. the security administrator received multiple alerts from the company\’s statistical anomaly- based IDS about a company database administrator performing unusual transactions. At10:55 a.m. the security administrator resets the database administrator\’s password.
At 11:00 a.m. the security administrator is still receiving alerts from the IDS about unusual transactions from the same user. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the alerts?
A. The IDS logs are compromised.
B. The new password was compromised.
C. An input validation error has occurred.
D. A race condition has occurred.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An attacker attempts to create a DoS event against the VoIP system of a company. The attacker uses a tool to flood the network with a large number of SIP INVITE traffic. CAS-002 dumps Which of the following would be LEAST likely to thwart such an attack?
A. Install IDS/IPS systems on the network
B. Force all SIP communication to be encrypted
C. Create separate VLANs for voice and data traffic
D. Implement QoS parameters on the switches
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A security policy states that all applications on the network must have a password length of eight characters. There are three legacy applications on the network that cannot meet this policy. One system will be upgraded in six months, and two are not expected to be upgraded or removed from the network. Which of the following processes should be followed?
A. Establish a risk matrix
B. Inherit the risk for six months
C. Provide a business justification to avoid the risk
D. Provide a business justification for a risk exception
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An IT administrator wants to restrict DNS zone transfers between two geographically dispersed, external company DNS name servers, and has decided to use TSIG. Which of the following are critical when using TSIG? (Select TWO).
A. Periodic key changes once the initial keys are established between the DNS name servers.
B. Secure exchange of the key values between the two DNS name servers.
C. A secure NTP source used by both DNS name servers to avoid message rejection.
D. DNS configuration files on both DNS name servers must be identically encrypted.
E. AES encryption with a SHA1 hash must be used to encrypt the configuration files on both DNS name servers.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
A medical device manufacturer has decided to work with another international organization to develop the software for a new robotic surgical platform to be introduced into hospitals within the next 12 months. In order to ensure a competitor does not become aware, management at the medical device manufacturer has decided to keep it secret until formal contracts are signed. Which of the following documents is MOST likely to contain a description of the initial terms and arrangement and is not legally enforceable?
A. OLA
B. BPA
C. SLA
D. SOA
E. MOU
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
An administrator believes that the web servers are being flooded with excessive traffic from time to time. The administrator suspects that these traffic floods correspond to when a competitor makes major announcements. Which of the following should the administrator do to prove this theory?
A. Implement data analytics to try and correlate the occurrence times.
B. Implement a honey pot to capture traffic during the next attack.
C. Configure the servers for high availability to handle the additional bandwidth.
D. Log all traffic coming from the competitor\’s public IP addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A senior network security engineer has been tasked to decrease the attack surface of the corporate network. Which of the following actions would protect the external network interfaces from external attackers performing network scanning?
A. Remove contact details from the domain name registrar to prevent social engineering attacks.
B. Test external interfaces to see how they function when they process fragmented IP packets.
C. Enable a honeynet to capture and facilitate future analysis of malicious attack vectors.
D. Filter all internal ICMP message traffic, forcing attackers to use full-blown TCP port scans against external networkinterfaces.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Joe, a hacker, has discovered he can specifically craft a webpage that when viewed in a browser crashes the browser and then allows him to gain remote code execution in the context of the victim\’s privilege level. CAS-002 dumps The browser crashes due to an exception error when a heap memory that is unused is accessed. Which of the following BEST describes the application issue?
A. Integer overflow
B. Click-jacking
C. Race condition
D. SQL injection
E. Use after free
F. Input validation
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Company A needs to export sensitive data from its financial system to company B\’s database, using company B\’s API in an automated manner. Company A\’s policy prohibits the use of any intermediary external systems to transfer or store its sensitive data, therefore the transfer must occur directly between company A\’s financial system and company B\’s destination server using the supplied API. Additionally, company A\’s legacy financial software does not support encryption, while company B\’s API supports encryption. Which of the following will provide end-to-end encryption for the data transfer while adhering to these requirements?
A. Company A must install an SSL tunneling software on the financial system.
B. Company A\’s security administrator should use an HTTPS capable browser to transfer the data.
C. Company A should use a dedicated MPLS circuit to transfer the sensitive data to company B.
D. Company A and B must create a site-to-site IPSec VPN on their respective firewalls.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The security administrator has just installed an active\passive cluster of two firewalls for enterprise perimeter defense of the corporate network. Stateful firewall inspection is being used in the firewall implementation. There have been numerous reports of dropped connections with external clients.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this problem?
A. TCP sessions are traversing one firewall and return traffic is being sent through the secondary firewall and sessions are being dropped.
B. TCP and UDP sessions are being balanced across both firewalls and connections are being dropped because the session IDs are not recognized by the secondary firewall.
C. Prioritize UDP traffic and associated stateful UDP session information is traversing the passive firewall causing the connections to be dropped.
D. The firewall administrator connected a dedicated communication cable between the firewalls in order to share a single state table across the cluster causing the sessions to be dropped.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A security analyst has been asked to develop a quantitative risk analysis and risk assessment for the company\’s online shopping application. Based on heuristic information from the Security Operations Center (SOC), a Denial of Service Attack (DoS) has been successfully executed 5 times a year. The Business Operations department has determined the loss associated to each attack is $40,000. After implementing application caching, the number of DoS attacks was reduced to one time a year. The cost of the countermeasures was $100,000. Which of the following is the monetary value earned during the first year of operation?
A. $60,000
B. $100,000
C. $140,000
D. $200,000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A bank now has a major initiative to virtualize as many servers as possible, due to power and rack space capacity at both data centers. The bank has prioritized by virtualizing older servers first as the hardware is nearing end-of-life.
The two initial migrations include:
Windows 2000 hosts: domain controllers and front-facing web servers RHEL3 hosts: front-facing web servers
Which of the following should the security consultant recommend based on best practices?
A. One data center should host virtualized web servers and the second data center should host the virtualized domain controllers.
B. One virtual environment should be present at each data center, each housing a combination of the converted Windows 2000 and RHEL3 virtual machines.
C. Each data center should contain one virtual environment for the web servers and another virtual environment for the domain controllers.
D. Each data center should contain one virtual environment housing converted Windows 2000 virtual machines and converted RHEL3 virtual machines.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A large bank deployed a DLP solution to detect and block customer and credit card data from leaving the organization via email. A disgruntled employee was able to successfully exfiltrate data through the corporate email gateway by embedding a word processing document containing sensitive data as an object in a CAD file. CAS-002 dumps Which of the following BEST explains why it was not detected and blocked by the DLP solution? (Select TWO).
A. The product does not understand how to decode embedded objects.
B. The embedding of objects in other documents enables document encryption by default.
C. The process of embedding an object obfuscates the data.
D. The mail client used to send the email is not compatible with the DLP product.
E. The DLP product cannot scan multiple email attachments at the same time.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
A company is in the process of outsourcing its customer relationship management system to a cloud provider. It will host the entire organization\’s customer database. The database will be accessed by both the company\’s users and its customers. The procurement department has asked what security activities must be performed for the deal to proceed.
Which of the following are the MOST appropriate security activities to be performed as part of due diligence? (Select TWO).
A. Physical penetration test of the datacenter to ensure there are appropriate controls.
B. Penetration testing of the solution to ensure that the customer data is well protected.
C. Security clauses are implemented into the contract such as the right to audit.
D. Review of the organizations security policies, procedures and relevant hosting certifications.
E. Code review of the solution to ensure that there are no back doors located in the software.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
The IT director has charged the company helpdesk with sanitizing fixed and removable media. The helpdesk manager has written a new procedure to be followed by the helpdesk staff. This procedure includes the current standard to be used for data sanitization, as well as the location of physical degaussing tools. In which of the following cases should the helpdesk staff use the new procedure? (Select THREE).
A. During asset disposal
B. While reviewing the risk assessment
C. While deploying new assets
D. Before asset repurposing
E. After the media has been disposed of
F. During the data classification process
G. When installing new printers
H. When media fails or is unusable
Correct Answer: ADH

QUESTION 18
An administrator\’s company has recently had to reduce the number of Tier 3 help desk technicians available to support enterprise service requests. As a result, configuration standards have declined as administrators develop scripts to troubleshoot and fix customer issues. The administrator has observed that several default configurations have not been fixed through applied group policy or configured in the baseline. Which of the following are controls the administrator should recommend to the organization\’s security manager to prevent an authorized user from conducting internal reconnaissance on the organization\’s network? (Select THREE).
A. Network file system
B. Disable command execution
C. Port security
D. TLS
E. Search engine reconnaissance
F. NIDS
G. BIOS security
H. HIDS
I. IdM
Correct Answer: BGI

QUESTION 19
The helpdesk manager wants to find a solution that will enable the helpdesk staff to better serve company employees who call with computer-related problems. The helpdesk staff is currently unable to perform effective troubleshooting and relies on callers to describe their technology problems. Given that the helpdesk staff is located within the company headquarters and 90% of the callers are telecommuters, which of the following tools should the helpdesk manager use to make the staff more effective at troubleshooting while at the same time reducing company costs? (Select TWO).
A. Web cameras
B. Email
C. Instant messaging
D. BYOD
E. Desktop sharing
F. Presence
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 20
An organization is preparing to upgrade its firewall and NIPS infrastructure and has narrowed the vendor choices down to two platforms. The integrator chosen to assist the organization with the deployment has many clients running a mixture of the possible combinations of environments. Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive method for evaluating the two platforms?
A. Benchmark each possible solution with the integrators existing client deployments.
B. Develop testing criteria and evaluate each environment in-house.
C. Run virtual test scenarios to validate the potential solutions.
D. Use results from each vendor\’s test labs to determine adherence to project requirements.
Correct Answer: B

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1Y0-401 dumps
QUESTION 1
Why would the architect choose XenServer MPIO when configuring bonded network interfaces for guest VM networks?
A. It provides load balancing of VM traffic across multiple physical NIC interfaces at a per guest basis, and offers improved distribution of traffic across physical interfaces in the bond.
B. It sends all guest VM traffic in the bond to an active interface, which provides the best distribution of network load.
C. It uses a hashing algorithm, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
D. It uses a round robin load-balancing policy, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
How should the architect recommend that the target devices boot from the Provisioning Services server?
A. By configuring a Windows deployment server
B. By using SFTP
C. By using FTP
D. By using DHCP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which option requires the fewest components to implement a fault-tolerant, load-balanced solution for end- user access at each datacenter?
A. Two StoreFront servers in a single StoreFront server group.
B. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to a single StoreFront server.
C. Three NetScalers in a cluster, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
D. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Why is a design with 12 NetScaler appliances, in which each datacenter deploys an HA pair in the internal network for Gateway traffic and an HA pair in the DMZ for load balancing, the best remote access design? 1Y0-401 dumps
A. It allows end users to connect to their primary datacenter through a secure, reliable, and cost-effective solution.
B. It provides redundancy, while optimizing external WAN traffic.
C. It segments the Gateway and load-balancing features of the NetScaler appliances.
D. It allows for the expected expansion of remote access usage and provides SSL VPN functionality for future needs.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario: CGE acquires a small energy company that is running MGMT, a proprietary 16-bit application. A Citrix Architect is tasked with deploying this application to the Executives/Management end-user group. The CIO mandates that a FlexCast model must be chosen that resembles this end-user group\’s existing delivery strategy.
It is important that a single-image deployment is utilized and that management effort is kept to a minimum for the update process. The availability of a fast rollback plan must also be available after upgrades, since it can often result in system instability.
Why is deploying MGMT in a Hosted Shared environment on Windows Server 2008 R2 with Machine Creation Services the best solution?
A. It offers a faster change process.
B. End users are already comfortable working in a shared environment.
C. It prevents XenApp server crashes.
D. It enables faster rollbacks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
CGE decided that all end users must use two-factor authentication to connect remotely to the Citrix environment. Which two sites will be able to support this requirement for Citrix Receiver for iOS and Android? (Choose two.)
A. Tulsa
B. Jurong
C. London
D. Odessa
E. Houston
F. Aberdeen
G. Makassar
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
Why is separating the workloads by roles to reflect the OU structure of Active Directory, creating a resource pool comprising a maximum of 24 XenServer hosts, and implementing a storage repository for virtual disks, XenMotion, high availability, and disaster recovery backups the best design solution?
A. It ensures the logical separation of infrastructure and virtual desktop workloads, and facilitates management and expansion capabilities.
B. It provides workload flexibility to more efficiently leverage available resources within a resource pool, and facilitates expansion options. In addition, daily backups create minimal downtime for critical workloads.
C. It separates infrastructure and virtual desktop workloads according to resource usage characteristics to avoid conflicts. In addition, it provides critical database services with sufficient workload-specific resources and failover capabilities.
D. It ensures the logical separation of all workloads and virtual desktops. In addition, the backup solution reduces the risk of data loss and minimizes downtime.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
Why is creating a resource pool comprising a maximum of 16 XenServer hosts, using a shared storage repository to provide XenMotion and high availability, and replicating meta information to the disaster recovery site the best design solution?
A. It addresses all customer requirements by ensuring appropriate design of resource pools, high availability for critical workloads, and a new storage solution for disaster recovery purposes.
B. It ensures simple setup with a built-in failover design.
C. It allows virtual workloads to fail over to a failover site for disaster recovery purposes.
D. It optimizes performance and provides centralized management.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
How many Provisioning Services servers should the architect install in each of the three configured sites?
A. One server in each datacenter
B. Two servers in each datacenter
C. Three servers in each datacenter
D. Two servers in the primary datacenter, two servers in the secondary datacenter, and one server in the remaining datacenter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases. 1Y0-401 dumps
How should the resource pools be designed to host the infrastructure workloads and virtual desktops to ensure high availability?
A. Separate the workloads by roles and group them as a XenServer resource pool to ensure easier management, fewer workload conflicts, and support for disaster recovery. Each XenServer resource pool should comprise a maximum of eight XenServer hosts. A storage repository needs to be implemented for central storage of virtual disks, as well as for XenMotion, high availability, and backup for disaster recovery purposes.
B. Separate the workloads by roles and group them as a XenServer resource pool to reflect the OU structure of Active Directory. Each XenServer resource pool should comprise a maximum of 24 XenServer hosts. A storage repository needs to be implemented for central storage of virtual disks, as well as for XenMotion, high availability, and backup for disaster recovery purposes.
C. Separate the workloads by roles and group them as a XenServer resource pool. Each XenServer resource pool should comprise a maximum of 16 XenServer hosts. Multiple storage repositories need to be implemented for central storage of virtual disks, as well as for XenMotion and high availability between resource pools and backup for disaster recovery purposes.
D. Separate the workloads by roles and group them as a XenServer resource pool to ensure that the workloads can be streamed by Provisioning Services, including XenServer. Each XenServer resource pool should comprise a maximum of 32 XenServer hosts. Multiple storage repositories need to be implemented for central storage of virtual disks, as well as for XenMotion, high availability between resource pools, and backup for disaster recovery purposes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Scenario:
To ensure the security of its new solution, CGE wants to limit end-user access to USB peripherals. Policies have been implemented to disable USB redirection for all end users. As a company policy, only the Research end-user group will be allowed to access USB peripheral devices. What could a Citrix Architect design to meet the stated requirements?
A. A GPO that allows USB redirection, linked to the CGE OU.
B. A GPO that allows USB redirection, linked only to the Aberdeen and Houston OUs.
C. A Citrix policy that allows USB redirection, with a filter on the IP range for CGE\’s Aberdeen and Houston subnets.
D. A Citrix policy that allows USB redirection, with a filter on the Delivery Group for the Research end-user group desktop.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
What is the benefit of using the Local VM FlexCast model?
A. It is compatible with tablet devices.
B. It offers the greatest level of end-user personalization.
C. It supports a variety of hardware configurations from a single image.
D. It allows remote access to applications.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Scenario:
CGE is experiencing numerous issues with its existing profile management solution. The Citrix Architect managing the project is tasked with designing a solution that alleviates existing issues and, if possible, minimizes the loss of existing customizations. Configuration changes need to be implemented quickly and with minimal complexity.
Why does enabling \’Offline profile support\’ benefit CGE\’s Sales end-user group?
A. It allows faster logons and logoffs.
B. It minimizes the required storage needed for folder redirection.
C. It simplifies home drive cleanup.
D. It improves data accuracy in volatile environments.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. 1Y0-401 dumps The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
What are the benefits of using Hosted Shared servers provisioned from cloned VM templates?
A. It provides the highest end-user density at the lowest cost.
B. It provides the greatest level of end-user personalization and control.
C. It offers the lowest storage performance requirement and the highest end-user density.
D. It facilitates rapid provisioning.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Scenario:
CGE is experiencing numerous issues with its existing profile management solution. The Citrix Architect managing the project is tasked with designing a solution that alleviates existing issues and, if possible, minimizes the loss of existing customizations. Configuration changes need to be implemented quickly and with minimal complexity.
Why does enabling file and folder exclusions when configuring Citrix Profile management without folder redirection benefit CGE\’s Sales end-user group?
A. It minimizes the required storage needed for folder redirection.
B. It simplifies home drive cleanup.
C. It improves application performance.
D. It allows faster logons and logoffs.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which connection type is used when WorxWeb for iOS is configured to use Secure Browse mode?
A. Full VPN
B. Micro VPN
C. STA Tunnel
D. Clientless VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is the recommended procedure for reverting an App Controller high availability (HA) pair to a previous snapshot?
A. Import the snapshot to the secondary node, import the snapshot to the primary node and restart the primary node.
B. Disable high availability, shut down the primary node and import the snapshot to the secondary node, start the primary node.
C. Disable high availability, shut down the secondary node and import the snapshot to the primary node,restart the primary node.
D. Shut down the secondary node, import the snapshot to the primary node, and restart the primary node, start the secondary node.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: Users in an organization use WorxMail on their mobile devices for email access. A Citrix Engineer needs to configure NetScaler and App Controller to allow these users to stay connected to email for long durations without prompting re-authentication.
What should the engineer configure to meet the requirements of the scenario?
A. Micro VPN
B. Single Sign-on
C. Client certificate
D. Secure Ticket Authority
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Scenario: An organization has decided to implement a ‘bring-your-own-device’ (or ‘BYOD’) policy.
To support the BYOD initiative, the organization is in search of a mobile device management solution. 1Y0-371 dumps The primary business driver for the solution will be to provide IT with control of mobility resource provisioning and de-provisioning for terminated users, as well as the ability to perform a selective wipe on lost devices.
Which component should be included in the deployment to meet the needs of the solution?
A. StoreFront
B. Worx Home
C. NetScaler Gateway
D. XenMobile Device Manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three prerequisites must be met to deploy XenMobile Device Manager in a high availability configuration? (Choose three.)
A. IIS installed and configured on two web servers
B. VIP or host name configured on a load balancer
C. SSL Session Persistence on ports 443 and 8443 on the load balancer
D. SQL Server Database accessible from both nodes of the high availability pair
E. PostgreSQL database accessible from both nodes of the high availability pair
Correct Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to use the XenMobile Device Manager (XDM) server to enroll and manage 200 iPad devices. During the installation of the XDM server, the Enable iOS option is NOT selected.
How could the engineer now enable this mode of device management for the iPad devices?
A. Use an MDX policy.
B. Run the iOSenable utility.
C. Re-enroll the iPad devices.
D. Use the XenMobile Device Manager console.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario: The installation of a XenMobile Device Manager server fails on the last step. The following error message is displayed:
“Configuration Failed”
What could have led to this error?
A. The correct Java JCE files have NOT been updated.
B. A license server for XenMobile Device Manager does NOT exist.
C. The IIS rule is installed on the XenMobile Device Manager server.
D. A database server for XenMobile Device Manager does NOT exist.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which URL could a Citrix Engineer use to connect to an App Controller appliance while in the process of configuring the appliance for the first time?
A. https://<IPaddress>:443
B. https://<IPaddress>:4443
C. http://<IPaddress>:4443/admin
D. https://<IPaddress>:4443/controlpoint
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A Citrix Engineer is setting up NetScaler for the first time and needs to configure NetScaler Gateway as part of a XenMobile solution.
Which two pieces of information will the engineer need in order to allocate the universal license properly? (Choose two.)
A. The number of mobile users
B. The Host ID of the NetScaler
C. The number of mobile devices
D. The Host name of the NetScaler
Correct Answer: A,D

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to add 10.10.220.10 as a Subnet IP (SNIP) through the NetScaler command-line interface. The SNIP will be used to provide connectivity to devices on another subnet. 1Y0-371 dumps Management access is required through the SNIP.
Which command should the engineer use?
A. add ns ip -type snip 10.10.220.10 255.255.255.0 -mgmtaccess ENABLED
B. add ns ip 10.10.220.10 255.255.255.0 -type SNIP -mgmtaccess ENABLED
C. add ns ip 10.10.220.10 -mask 255.255.255.0 -type SNIP -mgmtaccess ENABLED
D. add ns ip 10.10.220.10 255.255.255.0 -type SNIP-ssh ENABLED -restrictaccess DISABLED
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When joining additional servers to an on-premise StorageZone environment, which URL should a Citrix Engineer use for the Primary Zone Controller field/entry?
A. http://<primary server IP address>/ControlPoint
B. http://<primary server IP address>/PrimaryZone
C. http://<primary server IP address>/ConfigService
D. http://<primary server IP address>/PrimaryConfig
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A Citrix Engineer is integrating a Microsoft Certificate Authority server with the XenMobile Device Manager to provide certificate-based authentication for Wi-Fi.
Which iOS policy must the engineer configure to deploy the certificate to devices?
A. iOS SCEP
B. iOS Certificate
C. iOS Credentials
D. iOS App Configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A Citrix Engineer needs to load balance enrollment requests from Apple iOS devices.
The engineer should implement an SSL Offload virtual server using __________ protocol and port __________. (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)
A. SSL; 443
B. TCP; 443
C. SSL; 8443
D. TCP; 8443
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A school has a pool of mobile devices that students use on premises for coursework.
How could a Citrix Engineer configure XenMobile Device Manager to warn the user when the device is taken off campus?
A. Deploy a Roaming Configuration policy.
B. Issue a Locate from the Device Security menu.
C. Enable Tracking from the Device Security menu.
D. Set the Geo-fencing options in a Location Services policy.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which two policies should a Citrix Engineer add to a deployment package to set the status of a user’s device to Out of Compliance and notify the engineer whenever a user installs a blacklisted application on an enrolled device? (Choose two.)
A. App Lock
B. Restriction
C. Automated Actions
D. Applications Access
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 16
Which two settings could a Citrix Engineer configure during Express Setup on the App Controller console? (Choose two.)
A. License file
B. NTP Server
C. DNS Servers
D. HA Peer address
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 17
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to provide users with remote access to SaaS applications managed by XenMobile. Users will access the applications on their mobile devices through Worx Home. 1Y0-371 dumps
Which two options should the engineer configure in the session profile on the NetScaler? (Choose two.)
A. ICAProxy OFF
B. Clientless Access ON
C. URL Encoding OBSCURE
D. Single Sign-on to Web Applications DISABLED
Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 18
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is working in a XenMobile proof-of-concept environment, which has a single-hop DMZ. The engineer needs to integrate XenMobile Device Manager with XenMobile App Controller for internal testing purposes.
Which two requirements must the engineer ensure are met in order to successfully configure this environment? (Choose two.)
A. The Device Manager must be able to resolve the App Controller’s Host Name.
B. The App Controller root certificate must be installed on the Device Manager server.
C. Ports 80 and 443 must be opened between the Device Manager and the App Controller.
D. Both the Device Manager and the App Controller must be located on the same network subnet.
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 19
Scenario:StoreFront is implemented as part of a XenMobile solution. Users in the environment currently rely on HTML5 Receiver because Citrix Receiver is NOT installed on their workstations.
How could a Citrix Engineer present Web/SaaS applications to these users based on the scenario?
A. Enable StoreFront to aggregate App Controller apps.
B. Add the App Controller server to StoreFront as a Delivery Controller.
C. Enable the ‘Require app installation’ option in the Web/SaaS application properties.
D. Add the StoreFront Legacy support URL to the Windows Apps Configuration on the App
Controller.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Scenario: An organization just acquired another organization and must create a new secure LDAP configuration to enable mobile device enrollment for the new domain users. The new domain will be called domain.local and will be hosted in a remote datacenter.
Which two tasks must a Citrix Engineer complete in order to successfully complete this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Open port 389 on the firewall.
B. Open port 636 on the firewall.
C. Install an Active Directory root certificate on the Device Manager server.
D. Configure two-way transitive trust between the new and existing domains.
Correct Answer: B,C

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QUESTION 1
You are the data steward for a Business Intelligence project.
You must identify duplicate rows stored in a SQL Server table and output discoveries to a CSV file. A Data Quality Services (DQS) knowledge base has been created to support this project.
You need to produce the CSV file with the least amount of development effort.
What should you do?
A. Create an Integration Services package and use a Data Profiling transform.
B. Create a custom .NET application based on the Knowledgebase class.
C. Create a data quality project.
D. Create a CLR stored procedure based on the Knowledgebase class.
E. Create a Master Data Services (MDS) business rule.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You manage a SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) environment.
A new application requires access to the product data that is available in the MDS repository.
You need to design a solution that gives the application access to the product data with the least amount of development effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a Subscription View in MDS.
B. Access the product entity tables in the MDS database directly.
C. Use SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) to extract the data and put it in a staging database.
D. Use change data capture on the product entity tables.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are creating a SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) model for a company.
The source data for the company is stored in a single table that contains the manager-tosubordinate relationships.
You need to create a hierarchy representing the organizational structure of the company.
Which hierarchy type should you use?
A. Organizational
B. Recursive
C. Non-Mandatory Explicit
D. Many-to-Many
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are completing the installation of the Data Quality Server component of SQL Server Data Quality Services (DQS).
You need to complete the post-installation configuration. 070-463 dumps
What should you do?
A. Run the DQSInstaller.exe command.
B. Install the data providers that are used for data refresh.
C. Install ADOMD.NET.
D. Run the dbimpexp.exe command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are creating a SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) model. This model is used to store a master list of products.
An attribute must be added to the Product entity to define the sales manager responsible for each product.
You need to create an attribute in the Product entity that prevents users from entering invalid sales manager values.
Which type of attribute should you create?
A. Recursive
B. Explicit
C. Domain-based
D. User-defined
E. Derived
F. Parent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are installing the Data Quality Client on user desktops.
You need to ensure that the prerequisite software components are installed.
Which components must be present to meet this goal? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SQL Server Management Studio
B. Internet Explorer 6.0 SP1 or later
C. Microsoft Silverlight 5
D. .NET Framework 3.5 SP1
E. .NET Framework 4.0
F. Microsoft Silverlight 4
G. SQL Server Data Tools
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 7
You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project by using the Project Deployment model.
The project contains many packages. It is deployed on a server named Development!. The project will be deployed to several servers that run SQL Server 2012.
The project accepts one required parameter. The data type of the parameter is a string.
A SQL Agent job is created that will call the master.dtsx package in the project. A job step is created for the SSIS package.
The job must pass the value of an SSIS Environment Variable to the project parameter.
The value of the Environment Variable must be configured differently on each server that runs SQL Server. The value of the Environment Variable must provide the server name to the project parameter.
You need to configure SSIS on the Development1 server to pass the Environment Variable to the package.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence by using SQL Server Management Studio? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Correct Answer:
070-463 dumps
QUESTION 8
A new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project is deployed to the SSIS catalog.
To troubleshoot some data issues, you must output the data streaming through several data flows into text files for further analysis. You have the list of data flow package paths and identification strings of the various task components that must be analyzed.
You need to create these output files with the least amount of administrative and development effort.
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Correct Answer:
070-463 dumps
QUESTION 9
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data into a data warehouse. You add an Execute SQL task to the control flow.
The task must execute a simple INSERT statement. The task has the following requirements:
– The INSERT statement must use the value of a string package variable. The variable name is StringVar.
– The Execute SQL task must use an OLE DB Connection Manager.
In the Parameter Mapping tab of the Execute SQL task, StringVar has been added as the only parameter.
You must configure the SQLStatement property of the Execute SQL task.
Which SQL statement should you use?
A. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES ($StringVar)
B. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (0)
C. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (@0)
D. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (?)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a Type 3 Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD).
You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic. 070-463 dumps
What should you use?
A. a Script component
B. an SCD component
C. an Aggregate component
D. a Merge component
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are installing SQL Server Data Quality Services (DQS).
You need to give users belonging to a specific Active Directory group access to the Data Quality Server.
Which SQL Server application should you use?
A. Data Quality Client with administrative credentials
B. SQL Server Configuration Manager with local administrative credentials
C. SQL Server Data Tools with local administrative permissions
D. SQL Server Management Studio with administrative credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables. The first table contains sales per month and the second table contains orders per day.
Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively.
You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables.
What should you do?
A. Join the two fact tables.
B. Merge the fact tables.
C. Create a time dimension that can join to both fact tables at their respective granularity.
D. Create a surrogate key for the time dimension.
Correct Answer: C

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