Latest updates Microsoft 98-388 exam exercise questions to easily pass the exam

What is the best way to pass the Microsoft 98-388 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft Java 6 SE 98-388 exam practice test questions here.
Or choose https://www.lead4pass.com/98-388.html (42 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!

Microsoft Java 6 SE 98-388 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft Java 6 SE 98-388 google drive

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98-388: Introduction to Programming Using Java – Microsoft:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-388.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Understand Java fundamentals (15-20%)
  • Work with data types, variables, and expressions (40-45%)
  • Implement flow control (15-20%)
  • Perform object-oriented programming (10-15%)
  • Compile and debug code (5-10%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam are application developers working with Java 6 SE or later, secondary and immediate post-secondary level students of software development, or entry-level software developers.

Candidates should have at least 150 hours or instruction or hands-on experience with Java, are familiar with its features and capabilities, and understand how to write, debug and maintain well-formed, well documented Java code.

Latest updates Microsoft 98-388 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You are creating a method that converts a string representation of a number into an actual number.
The numbers passed into the method include whole numbers and fractional numbers.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass 98-388 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q1-1

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/data/converting.html

 

QUESTION 2
You have a Java class named InsurancePolicy.
You need to define a constant data member named RATE. The data member must be accessible by any class without
instantiating the InsurancePolicy class.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct position. Each code
segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass 98-388 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q2-1

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/javaOO/classvars.html

 

QUESTION 3
You are interviewing for a job at Adventure Works, Inc. The hiring manager asks you to create a single console
program.
The program takes multiple arguments from the command line and writes them to the screen in the same order as they
were typed on the command line.
Which three code segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate code segments
from the list of code segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 98-388 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q3-1

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/getStarted/cupojava/netbeans.html

 

QUESTION 4
You are creating a method that processes invoices. The invoices are contained in an ArrayList instance. After each
invoice is processed, the method must remove the invoice from the ArrayList instance.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass 98-388 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q4-1

References: https://beginnersbook.com/2013/12/java-arraylist/

 

QUESTION 5
You need to analyze the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only.lead4pass 98-388 exam question q5

What is the output of line 12 when you run printInt()?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
You need to evaluate the following Java program. Line numbers are included for reference only.lead4pass 98-388 exam question q6

Which three values will be displayed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate values from the list of values to the
answer area and arrange them in the correct order. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q6-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q6-2

 

QUESTION 7
You work as a Java programmer. A member of the team creates the following program. Line numbers are included for
reference only.lead4pass 98-388 exam question q7

The program is supposed to display a message to the console while it counts down from 60. The method does not work
as intended.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q7-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q7-2

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/nutsandbolts/operators.html

 

QUESTION 8
Traders hires you to write a Java program to manage account openings. To open a new account, a user must meet one
the following requirements:
be over 65 years old and have a minimum annual income of 10,000
be at least 21 and have an annual income greater than 25,000
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate operator to the correct position. Each operator
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass 98-388 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q8-1

References: https://www.tutorialspoint.com/java/java_basic_operators.htm

 

QUESTION 9
You are writing a Java console program. The program accepts command line arguments.
You need to ensure that the main method parses and handles each command line argument.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass 98-388 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
You are interviewing for a job as a Java developer.
You are presented with the following code. Line numbers are included for reference only.lead4pass 98-388 exam question q10

You need to evaluate what happens when the code runs.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the code.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q10-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q10-2

 

QUESTION 11
You need to evaluate the following code. Line numbers are included for reference only.lead4pass 98-388 exam question q11

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the code. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q11-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q11-2

 

QUESTION 12
You attend an interview for a job as a Java programmer.
You need to declare a two by three array of the double type with initial values.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location. Each code
segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass 98-388 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-388 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
You write the following Java program for Munson
Correct Answer: lead4pass 98-388 exam question q13

References: https://www.w3schools.com/java/java_try_catch.asp

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Latest updates Microsoft 98-367 exam exercise questions to easily pass the exam

What is the best way to pass the Microsoft 98-367 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 exam practice test questions here.
Or choose https://www.lead4pass.com/98-367.html (277 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!

Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

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Exam 98-367: Security fundamentals – Microsoft:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-367.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Understand security layers (25–30%)
  • Understand operating system security (35-40%)
  • Understand network security (20–25%)
  • Understand security software (15–20%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam validates that a candidate has fundamental security knowledge and skills. It can serve as a stepping stone to the Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA) exams.
It is recommended that candidates become familiar with the concepts and the technologies described here by taking relevant training courses. Candidates are expected to have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, anti-malware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.

Latest updates Microsoft 98-367 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a tool that can be used to evaluate the servers having vulnerabilities that are related to the
operating system and installed software?
A. DNS dynamic update
B. Windows Software Update Services
C. Read-Only domain controller (RODC)
D. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer
Correct Answer: D
Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer is a tool that can be used to evaluate the servers having vulnerabilities that are
related to the operating system and installed software Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) is a software tool of
Microsoft to determine security state by assessing missing security updates and less- secure security settings within
Microsoft Windows, Windows components such as Internet Explorer, IIS web server, and products Microsoft SQL
Server,
and Microsoft Office macro settings. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) includes a graphical and command
line interface that can perform local or remote scans of Windows systems.
Answer: B is incorrect. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is an add- on component of Windows Server 2008. It
provides functionality to a server to run as a Windows Update server in a Windows network environment.
Administrators
can configure a WSUS server as the only server to download updates from Windows site, and configure other
computers on the network to use the server as the source of update files. This will save lots of bandwidth as each
computer will not
download updates individually. WSUS 3.0 SP1 is the only version of WSUS that can be installed on Windows Server
2008. Earlier versions of WSUS cannot be installed on a server running Windows Server 2008.
Answer: C is incorrect. Read-only Domain Controller (RODC) is a domain controller that hosts the read-only partition of
the Active Directory database. RODC was developed by Microsoft typically to be deployed in a branch office
environment.
RODC is a good option to enhance security by placing it in a location where physical security is poor. RODC can also
be placed at locations having relatively few users and a poor network bandwidth to the main site. As only the read-only
partition of the Active Directory database is hosted by RODC, a little local IT knowledge is required to maintain it.
Answer: A is incorrect. DNS dynamic update is used to enable DNS client computers for registering and dynamically
updating their resource records with a DNS server whenever any modification or change has been taken place. It is
used to
update the DNS client computers with the reflecting changes.

 

QUESTION 2
A digitally signed e-mail message:
A. Validates the recipient
B. Validates the sender
C. Is encrypted
D. Is virus-free
Correct Answer: B
By digitally signing a message, you apply your unique digital mark to the message. The digital signature includes your
certificate and public key. This information proves to the recipient that you signed the contents of the message and not
an imposter, and that the contents have not been altered in transit. Reference: http://office.microsoft.com/en-us/outlook-help/secure-messages-with-a-digital-signature-HP001230539.aspx

 

QUESTION 3
Which enables access to all of the logged-in user\\’s capabilities on a computer?
A. Java applets
B. ActiveX controls
C. Active Server Pages (ASP)
D. Microsoft Silverlight
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
To keep third-party content providers from tracking your movements on the web, enable InPrivate Browsing.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\\’\\’ if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. InPrivate Filtering
B. SmartScreen Filter
C. Compatibility Mode
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
You need to install a domain controller in a branch office. You also need to secure the information on the domain
controller. You will be unable to physically secure the server. Which should you implement?
A. Read-Only Domain Controller
B. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Server Core Domain Controller
Correct Answer: A
A read-only domain controller (RODC) is a new type of domain controller in the Windows Server?2008 operating
system. With an RODC, organizations can easily deploy a domain controller in locations where physical security cannot
be guaranteed. An RODC hosts read-only partitions of the Active Directory?Domain Services (AD DS) database.
References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732801(v=ws.10).aspx

 

QUESTION 6
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass 98-367 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-367 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
You want to make your computer resistant to online hackers and malicious software. What should you do?
A. Configure a forward proxy.
B. Install anti-virus software.
C. Enable spam filtering.
D. Turn on Windows Firewall.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following helps prevent security failures?
A. Social engineering
B. Denial-of-Service attack
C. Attack surface reduction
D. Snooping
Correct Answer: C
The attack surface is a software environment where codes can be run by unauthenticated users. By improving
information security, the attack surface of a system or software can be reduced. Although attack surface reduction helps
prevent
security failures; it does not mitigate the amount of damage an attacker could inflict once a vulnerability is found.
Answer: B is incorrect. A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is mounted with the objective of causing a negative impact on
the performance of a computer or network. It is also known as network saturation attack or bandwidth consumption
attack.
Attackers make DoS attacks by sending a large number of protocol packets to a network. The problems caused by a
DoS attack are as follows: Saturate network resources.
Disrupt connections between two computers, thereby preventing communications between services.
Disrupt services to a specific computer.
Answer: D is incorrect. Snooping is an activity of observing the content that appears on a computer monitor or watching
what a user is typing. Snooping also occurs by using software programs to remotely monitor activity on a computer or
network device. Hackers or attackers use snooping techniques and equipment such as keyloggers to monitor
keystrokes, capture passwords and login information, and to intercept e-mail and other private communications.
Sometimes,
organizations also snoop their employees legitimately to monitor their use of organizations\\’ computers and track
Internet usage.
Answer: A is incorrect. Social engineering is the art of convincing people and making them disclose useful information
such as account names and passwords. This information is further exploited by hackers to gain access to a user\\’s
computer or network. This method involves mental ability of people to trick someone rather than their technical skills. A
user should always distrust people who ask him for his account name, password, computer name, IP address,
employee
ID, or other information that can be misused.

 

QUESTION 9
Which password attack uses all possible alpha numeric combinations?
A. Social engineering
B. Brute force attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Rainbow table attack
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Alice sends her password to the game server in plaintext. Chuck is able to observe her password as shown in the
following image:lead4pass 98-367 exam question q10

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth
one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 98-367 exam question q10-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-367 exam question q10-2

 

QUESTION 11
Mark works as the Network Administrator of a Windows 2000 based network. In order to reduce the administrative
burden and to optimize the network performance, he implements the DHCP and the DNS servers on the network. What
will he do integrate the working between the DHCP and the DNS servers? Each correct answer represents a part of the
solution. Choose two.
A. Configure the clients to use the DHCP server.
B. Enable DNS updates on the DHCP server.
C. Enable dynamic update on the DNS server.
D. Use the TCP/IP protocol on the network.
Correct Answer: BC
Answer: B and C To ensure proper DHCP-DNS integration, Mark must enable dynamic DNS support on the DNS server
as well as on the DHCP server. In the Windows 2000 Server, the DHCP service provides support to register and update
information for legacy DHCP clients in DNS zones. Legacy clients typically include other Microsoft TCP/IP client
computers that were released prior to Windows 2000 like Windows 9x, Windows NT. The DNS-DHCP integration,
provided in the Windows 2000 Server, enables a DHCP client that is unable to dynamically update DNS resource
records directly to have this information updated in the DNS forward, and reverse lookup zones by the DHCP server.
Note: Dynamic integration with the DHCP service is available only with Windows 2000 Server. DNS-DHCP integration is
not supported by DHCP servers running under Windows NT Server 4.0 and earlier versions.

 

QUESTION 12
The client computers on your network are stable and do not need any new features. Which is a benefit of applying
operating system updates to these clients?
A. Keep the software licensed
B. Keep the server ports available
C. Update the hardware firewall
D. Close existing vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Ron owns the domain TechPerfect.net. He often receives bounces about messages he didn\\’t send. After looking at all
such mails, he is sure that someone is spamming e- mails and using his domain name. What will Ron do to ensure that
his domain name is not exploited?
A. Publish the MX record for the domain.
B. Publish the SPF record for the domain.
C. Publish the AAAA record for the domain.
D. Publish the A record for the domain.
Correct Answer: B
Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an e-mail validation system designed to prevent e- mail spam by tackling source
address spoofing. SPF allows administrators to specify which hosts are allowed to send e-mail from a given domain by
creating a specific SPF record (or TXT record) in the public Domain Name System (DNS). Mail exchangers then use the
DNS to check whether that mail from the given domain is being sent by a host sanctioned by that domain\\’s
administrators. Answer: A, D, and C are incorrect. These records do not help prevent domain names from being
exploited by hackers.

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Microsoft mb-900 exam exercise questions, mb-900 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals” Exam MB-900.
This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational knowledge of Microsoft Dynamics 365, Power Platform applications,
and the cloud computing model. This exam will cover the considerations and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365, the Power Platform,
and cloud services in general. This exam can be taken as a precursor to Dynamics 365 certifications and training.

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MB-900 exam

Candidates for this exam should have a general knowledge of relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment.
Candidates should also have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.

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Exam MB-900: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta):https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-MB-900.aspx

Skills measured

  • Understand Dynamics 365 (40-45%)
  • Understand cloud concepts (25-30%)
  • Understand deployments and releases (20-25%)

Free Microsoft MB-900 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
What are the benefits of using cloud computing? To answer, drag the appropriate release types to the correct benefits.
Each release type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You need to identify which applications can be deployed as software as a service (SaaS) in the Microsoft cloud.
Which two applications can be deployed? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
B. Dynamics GP
C. Microsoft Excel
D. Dynamics CRM 2016
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Match each Microsoft Azure service to its category. To answer, drag the appropriate category from the column on the
left to its Azure service on the right. Each category may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q3-1

 

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined test to determine if it is correct.
The Customer Service Hub app is available on desktop browser and on a mobile device. It can be used for managing
cases and knowledge articles.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change needed
B. optimizes viewing for desktop browsers only
C. is available on a desktop browser for case management, but not for managing knowledge articles
D. does not provide the ability to add an activity to a case on a mobile device
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You need to create a new Dynamics 365 application that limits users to viewing only customer accounts.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You need to determine which tasks are available by default in the mobile app.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the task is available. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Match each application to its definition.
To answer, drag the appropriate application from the column on the left to its definition on the right. Each application
may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes is the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q8-1

 

QUESTION 9
You company wants to test Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement. The 30-day trial expires in a few days.
You need to extend the trial period for an additional 30 days.
What should you do?
A. Purchase a 30-day subscription
B. In the administrative portal, choose Extend trial, and then enter your credit card information
C. Open a support ticket with Microsoft to ask for an extension
D. Export your solution, start a new trial, and import the solution
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/billing-faqs-dynamics-365-online

 

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You need to determine whether to deploy Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations on-premises or in the cloud.
Which capabilities are handled by which deployment models? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-900 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-900 exam question q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
Several company employees need access to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for expense entry purposes
only.
You need to add the most restrictive license.
What should you do?
A. Get a User Subscription License (User SL) and give full user access
B. Get Licensed with Dynamics 365 Team Members
C. Get licensed with a Dynamics 365 Application subscription
D. Get a Device Subscription License (Device SL)
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
You run Dynamics 365 in the cloud. You make customizations using Microsoft Azure Blob storage for storing
documents, Azure Logic Apps for integration, and Azure IoT Hub to collect customer sensor data.
You need to determine the type of cloud service model being used by the customizations.
Which cloud service model is being used?
A. software as a service (SaaS)
B. platform as a service (PaaS)
C. infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
D. hybrid deployment
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A company needs to assess the current General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) compliance for its Dynamics 365
and Microsoft 365 Office implementations.
You need to recommend a tool to help manage GDPR compliance activities. You also need to provide a compliance
score with managed actions for both the company and Microsoft.
Which tool should you recommend?
A. Microsoft Trust Center
B. Detailed Assessment toolkit
C. Compliance Manager
D. Service Trust Portal
E. control mapping
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/meet-data-protection-and-regulatory-reqs-using-microsoft-cloud

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QUESTION 1
An end user needs to completely re-install Windows 7 on a home computer but it did not come with any OS discs. How
would a technician accomplish this?
A. Recovery partition
B. Primary partition
C. System restore
D. System refresh
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following
security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet?
A. Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only
B. Change the default username and password
C. Enable the wireless AP\\’s MAC filtering
D. Enable the wireless AP\\’s WPA2 security
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
The network administrator has changed the IP address of Computer A from 192. 168. 120 to 10. 10. 1020 and now Jane
a user, is unable to connect to file shares on Computer A from Computers using the computer name.
Instructions:
Using the available tools, resolve the connectivity issues. When you have completed the simulation, please select the
done button to submit your answer.
Correct Answer: Please review explanation for detailed answer
Please check the below images for detailed connectivity steps to do:

lead4pass 220-902 exam question q3

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QUESTION 4
A technician is attempting to troubleshoot a Linux home folder issue, but does not remember which directory is current.
Which of the following tools should the technician use to find the current directory?
A. dir
B. sudo
C. cd
D. pwd
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
A technician is attempting to manually migrate a user\\’s profile from one Windows PC to another. Files in the user\\’s
My Documents folder cannot be copied. Some files in question have green letters in the filenames. Which of the
following file systems is causing this to occur?
A. exFAT
B. COMPRESSED
C. EFS
D. NTFS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
A company has subscribed to a cloud service, paying monthly for a block of services and being billed incrementally
when they exceed the monthly fee. Which of the following cloud concepts does this represent?
A. Measured service
B. Rapid elasticity
C. On-demand D. Resource pooling
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
The user is having trouble using the mouse. The technician believes a program stopped responding that caused the
issue and asks the customer to hold down “Ctrl + Shift + Esc” to verify. Which of the following did the technician
launch?
A. Task Manager
B. Control Panel
C. Services
D. MSCONFIG
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A technician replaced a video card on a desktop PC. The technician powers on the PC to install the device drivers. The
PC boots up and goes through the POST, but the screen goes black when trying to boot the operating system. Which of
the following steps should the technician perform NEXT to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Flash the BIOS
B. Reseat the video card
C. Boot the PC in safe mode
D. Replace the video card with a new one
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Data on full disk encrypted drives using BitLocker is MOST secure from loss when combined with which of the following
technologies?
A. USB authentication token
B. Filesystem access controls
C. Trusted platform module
D. Fingerprint reader
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
A customer calls an IT consultant to explain an issue they are having with their Windows 7 Professional PC. Windows
Update attempts to install patches upon each startup but fails on the same single update. The customer has attempted
to re-run Windows Update from Control Panel but the issue remains. Which of the following courses of action would
BEST resolve the problem?
A. Running a full DEFRAG on the system
B. Clearing the AppData temp folder entirely
C. Clearing the Windows Update download cache entirely
D. Uninstalling the Windows Update feature in Windows 7 and reinstalling it directly from the Microsoft website
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
An employee was arrested after it was determined that an office computer was used for illegal activity that damaged the
company. Which of the following MUST be documented on the employee\\’s computer to ensure the evidence is
admissible on court?
A. Software inventory
B. Personality identifiable information
C. Security best practices
D. Chain of custody
Correct Answer: D
Reference https://epic.org/security/computer_search_guidelines.txt

 

QUESTION 12
When moving files from a Microsoft gaming console, which of the following command line utilities is recommended to
transfer files?
A. IMAP
B. XCOPY
C. DISKPART
D. FDISK
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A company that manages its own cloud, while utilizing a third-party vendor to help manage storage, is implementing
which of the following infrastructure types?
A. Hybrid
B. Community
C. Private
D. Public
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing?
A. It permits all traffic without logging.
B. It drops all traffic.
C. It inspects all traffic.
D. It permits and logs all traffic.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall?
A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity.
B. To protect one virtual network segment from another.
C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements.
D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session.
E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks.
Correct Answer: A
The term personal firewall typically applies to the basic software that can control Layer 3 and Layer 4 access to client
machines. HIPS provides several features that offer more robust security than a traditional personal firewall, such as
host intrusion prevention and protection against spyware, viruses, worms, Trojans, and other types of malware. Source:
Cisco Official Certification Guide, Personal Firewalls and Host Intrusion Prevention Systems, p.499

 

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 4
Which protocol offers data integrity, encryption, authentication, and antireplay functions for IPsec VPN?
A. AH protocol
B. ESP protocol
C. IKEv2 protocol
D. IKEv1 protocol
Correct Answer: B
IP Security Protocol—Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is a security protocol used to provide confidentiality (encryption), data origin
authentication, integrity, optional antireplay service, and limited traffic flow confidentiality by defeating traffic flow
analysis.
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=24833andamp;seqNum=3

 

QUESTION 5
Which ports need to be active for AAA server to integrate with Microsoft AD
A. 445 and 8080
B. 443 and 389
C. 445 and 389
D. 443 and 8080
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
Split tunneling is a computer networking concept which allows a mobile user to access dissimilar security domains like a
public network (e.g., the Internet) and a local LAN or WAN at the same time, using the same or different network
connections. This connection state is usually facilitated through the simultaneous use of, a Local Area Network (LAN)
Network Interface Card (NIC), radio NIC, Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) NIC, and VPN client software
application without the benefit of access control. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Split_tunneling

 

QUESTION 7
You are configuring a NAT rule on a Cisco ASA. Which description of a mapped interface is true?
A. It is mandatory for all firewall modes.
B. It is mandatory for identity NAT only.
C. It is optional in transparent mode.
D. It is optional in routed mode.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which is a key security component of MDM deployment?
A. Using the network-specific installer package
B. Using self-signed certificates to validate the server – generate a self-signed certificate to connect to the server (Deployed
certificates; Issued certificate to the server likely)
C. Using application tunnel
D. Using MS-CHAPv2 as primary EAP method
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
When is the best time to perform an anti-virus signature update?
A. Every time a new update is available.
B. When the local scanner has detected a new virus.
C. When a new virus is discovered in the wild.
D. When the system detects a browser hook.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A
Firewalls are generally designed to be on the network perimeter and can handle dropping a lot of the non- legitimate
traffic (attacks, scans, etc.) very quickly at the ingress interface, often in hardware. An IDS/IPS are, generally speaking,
doing more deep packet inspections and that is a much more computationally expensive undertaking. For that reason,
we prefer to filter what gets to it with the firewall line of defense before engaging the IDS/IPS to analyze the traffic flow.
Source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/discussion/12428821/correct-placement-idsips- network-architecture

 

QUESTION 11
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A
Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST) is a protocol proposal by Cisco Systems as a replacement for
LEAP. The protocol was designed to address the weaknesses of LEAP while preserving the “lightweight”
implementation. Use of server certificates is optional in EAP-FAST. EAP-FAST uses a Protected Access Credential
(PAC) to establish a TLS tunnel in which client credentials are verified. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extensible_Authentication_Protocol

 

QUESTION 12
What are the primary attack methods of VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP hopping
B. Switch spoofing
C. CAM-table overflow
D. Double tagging
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13
Which command do you enter to enable authentication for OSPF on an interface?
A. router(config-if)#ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 CISCOPASS
B. router(config-router)#area 0 authentication message-digest
C. router(config-router)#ip ospf authentication-key CISCOPASS
D. router(config-if)#ip ospf authentication message-digest
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about threat actors is true?
A. They are any company assets that are threatened.
B. They are any assets that are threatened.
C. They are perpetrators of attacks.
D. They are victims of attacks.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data normalization
B. data availability
C. data protection
D. data signature
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are the three metrics, or andquot; scores,andquot; of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System
(CVSS)? (Select all that apply.)
A. Baseline score
B. Base score
C. Environmental score
D. Temporal score
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 4
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable
component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which two potions are the primary 5-tuple components? (Choose two)
A. destination IP address
B. header length
C. sequence number
D. checksum
E. source IP address
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 6
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B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet censors.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are not components of the 5-tuple of flow in NetFlow? (Select all that apply.)
A. Source IP address
B. Flow record ID
C. Gateway
D. Source port
E. Destination port
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 8
Which CVSS metric describes the conditions that are beyond the attacker\\’s control that must exist to exploit the
vulnerability?
A. User interaction
B. Attack vector
C. attack complexity
D. privileges required
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which signature type results in a legitime alert been dismissed?
A. True negative
B. False negative
C. True Positive
D. False Positive
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following Linux file systems not only supports journaling but also modifies important data structures of the
file system, such as the ones destined to store the file data for better performance and reliability?
A. GRUB
B. LILO
C. Ext4
D. FAT32
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
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A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
Which of the following is one of the main goals of the CSIRT?
A. To configure the organization\\’s firewalls
B. To monitor the organization\\’s IPS devices
C. To minimize and control the damage associated with incidents, provide guidance for mitigation, and work to prevent
future incidents
D. To hire security professionals who will be part of the InfoSec team of the organization.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up.
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you.
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration.
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 2
Which component of the SD-Access fabric is responsible for communicating with networks that are external to the
fabric?
A. edge nodes
B. control plane nodes
C. intermediate nodes
D. border nodes
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three.)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apple Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 4
Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose two.)
A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus
B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements
C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership
D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling
E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRE tunnel to a mobility controller for policy
and application visibility
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 5
Which are two advantages of a “one switch at a time” approach to integrating SD-Access into an existing brownfield
environment? (Choose two.)
A. appropriate for campus and remote site environment
B. allows simplified testing prior to cutover
C. ideal for protecting recent investments while upgrading legacy hardware
D. involves the least risk of all approaches
E. opens up many new design and deployment opportunities
F. allows simplified roll back
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.)
A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SE, you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than contributing to demo
innovation.
B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations.
C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details.
D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach.
E. During a demo, you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 7
What are the three foundational elements required for the new operational paradigm? (Choose three.)
A. centralization
B. assurance
C. application QoS
D. multiple technologies at multiple OSI layers
E. policy-based automated provisioning of network
F. fabric
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 8
Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform?
A. single sign-on
B. IPv6 transport (WAN)
C. 2-factor authentication
D. license enforcement
E. reporting
F. non-Ethernet interfaces
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs
B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices
C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set
D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks
E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 10
What should you do if you are looking at a strategic win with a customer and the customer wants to examine Cisco ISE
for longer than a few weeks?
A. Give them some of our flash files that can be played on any browser.
B. Set them up with an account on a Cisco UCS server that hosts ISE.
C. Set them up with a dCloud account.
D. Give them our ISE YouTube videos.
E. Provide them with a downloadable POV lit.
F. Point them to our dCloud demo library.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.)
A. use of overlays
B. use of Virtual Network IDs
C. focus on user endpoints
D. use of group policy
E. use of Endpoint Groups
F. use of Scalable Group Tags
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 12
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which Cisco vEdge router offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput?
A. Cisco vEdge 5000
B. Cisco vEdge 1000
C. Cisco vEdge 2000
D. Cisco vEdge 100
Correct Answer: A

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The CCIE Service Provider exam validate professionals who have the expertise to design, implement, diagnose, and troubleshoot complex Service Provider highly available network infrastructure and services based on dual stack solutions (IPv4 and IPv6); understand how the network and service components interoperate; and understand the functional requirements and translate into specific device configurations.

Free test Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
In Ethernet Aggregation applications, which option is needed when the U-PE connects to an N-PE and broadband
remote access server?
A. Ethernet Multipoint Service
B. E1
C. VPLS
D. DSLAM
E. wire emulation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What does UDLD stand for?
A. UniDirectional Loop Detection
B. Unspecified Distribution Label Detection
C. Unified Distribution Label Direction
D. UniDirectional Link Detection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS on its network. The ISP is currently redesigning the network, to improve
performance and convergence. Which two IS-IS features meet the ISP requirements when changes happen on the
network? (Choose two.)
A. IP Event Dampening
B. Bidirectional Forwarding failure detection
C. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
D. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP generation exponential backoff timers
E. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
Correct Answer: DE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_isis/configuration/15-s/irs-15-s-book/irs-fscnt.html

QUESTION 4
Which two characteristics are benefits of MPLS LDP lossless MD5 session authentication? (Choose two.)
A. It allows for asymmetric passwords.
B. It uses the MPLS LDP targeted hello, which is authenticated, instead of the regular MPLS LDP hello, which cannot be
authenticated.
C. It allows you to achieve or change LDP MD5 session authentication without interrupting the LDP session.
D. It uses the MD5 method, which is a more secure authentication method than traditional MPLS LDP authentication,
which uses a cleartext method.
E. It enables authentication for UDP MPLS LDP discovery packets as well as TCP MPLS LDP label exchange
sessions.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-
os/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_ldp_lossless_md5.pdf

QUESTION 5
A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that
the service level agreement has been honored?
A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now
C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now
E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 6
Which statement about provider-independent and provider-assigned address blocks is true?
A. There is no difference.
B. PI space is not globally routable and can be used as private addressing.
C. PA space is globally routable and can be obtained from IANA by all organizations.
D. PA space is assigned by the ISP and PI space is assigned by the regional registry. Both are globally routable.
E. PI and PA blocks are both assigned by the regional registry to all organizations.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which protocol provides an alternative to the STP, which provides a way to control network loops, handle link failures,
and improve convergence time and can coexist with STP?
A. PBB-EVPN
B. IEEE 802.1ah
C. Flex links
D. E-TREE
E. REP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS
domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6
multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it?
A. IGMP snooping
B. MLD snooping
C. MLD querier
D. IGMP version 3
E. MLD version 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q9

Routers R1 and R2 have exchanged label binding information. What is preventing the labels from populating the MPLS
forwarding table?
A. MTU on the serial interface cannot accommodate labels.
B. Cisco Express Forwarding is not running.
C. The MPLS label distribution protocol is mismatched.
D. Inbound access list 100 is applied on the serial interface.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two options describe how 6RD compares to automatic 6to4 tunneling? (Choose two.)
A. 6RD provides a controlled exit point from the IPv6 Internet.
B. 6RD provides a controlled entry point to the IPv6 Internet.
C. 6RD is widely available in current OS implementations.
D. Automatic 6to4 tunneling is widely available in current OS implementations.
E. Automatic 6to4 tunneling and 6RD use a well-known IPv6 prefix.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11lead4pass 400-201 exam question q11

Refer to the exhibit AS 200 uses the CSC solution provided by AS 100 with regards to the packets originated on ABC-
Site2 going toward to ABC-Site1, how many labels are in the label stack of these packets when they cross the link
between CSC-PE2 and CS-P?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two factors are significant drivers for 5G in IoT networks? (Choose two.)
A. Programmability
B. Energy Efficiency
C. Mass Connectivity
D. Higher data rates
E. Lower Latency
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13lead4pass 400-201 exam question q13

Refer to the exhibit. Which physical interface provides the clock information?
A. Gi0/4
B. Gi0/11
C. Gi0/10
D. Gi0/5
Correct Answer: C

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Latest effective Citrix CCP-N 1Y0-340 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure an Application Firewall policy for an online shopping website called
“mycompany.com”. As a security measure, the shopping cart application is hosted on a separate directory “/mycart” on
the backend server. The engineer configured a profile to secure the connections to this shopping cart and now needs to
ensure that this profile is allied to all incoming connections to the shopping cart.
Which policy expression will accomplish this requirement?
A. http.req.url. contains(“/mycart”) and http:req.url.hostname.eq(“mycompany.com”)
B. http.req.url. contains(“/mycart”) || http:req.url.hostname.eq(“mycompany.com”)
C. http.req.header (“url”).contains (“/mycart”) || http.req.url.contains (“mycompany.com”)
D. http.req.header (“url”).contains (“/mycart”) andand http:req.url.contains (“mycompy.com”)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A Citrix Engineer needs to optimize the Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) content sent from the backend server before
being forwarded to the client. Which option can the engineer use to accomplish CSS optimization?
A. Move to Head Tag
B. Shrink to Attributes
C. Lazy Load
D. Convert to WebP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure Application Firewall to handle SQL injection issues. However, after
enabling SQL injection check, the backend server started dropping user requests.
The Application Firewall configuration is as follows:
add appfw profile Test123 –startURLAction none- denyURLAction nonecrossSiteScriptingAction none
–SQLInjectionAction log stats- SQLInjection TransformSpecialChars ON –SQLInjectionCheckSQLWildChars ON-
fieldFormatAction none
bufferOverflowAction none- responseContentType “application/octet-stream”–XMLSQLInjectionAction none-
XMLXSSAction none-XMLWSIAction none-XMLValidationAction none
What does the engineer need to change in the Application Firewall configuration?
A. Enable-XMLSQLInjectionAction none
B. Enable-XMLValidationAction none
C. Disable- SQLInjectionCheckSQLWildChars ON
D. Disable- SQLInjectionTransformSpecialChars ON
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which reason can cause fail over in a NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) High Availability pair?
A. A secondary server loses connectivity in the LAN.
B. The engineer manually forces the secondary server to shut down.
C. A primary server encounters a critical software issue.
D. A primary server does NOT receive the SNMP traps from the instances connected.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
A website hosts highly dynamic content that is frequently requested in bursts of high user access. Which configuration
will reduce traffic to the origin server while optimizing client performance?
A. –pollEveryTime NO
B. –expireAtLastByte YES
C. –flashCache YES
D. –heurExpiryParam 0
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
A Citrix Engineer is considered that malicious users could exploit a web system by sending a large cookie. Which
security check can the engineer implement to address this concern?
A. Field Formats
B. Content-type
C. Buffer Overflow
D. Start URL
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which mechanism does the NetScaler use to enable a safe and speedy data exchange between a client/server initial
TCP handshake?
A. TCP Fast Open (TFO)
B. TCP Burst Rate Control
C. TCP Hystart
D. TCP Time Stamp
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
A Citrix Engineer configures the integrated caching feature to cache both static and dynamic content, but the integrated
cache feature does NOT work as expected. Which two resources can the engineer use to troubleshoot this integrated
cache issue? (Choose two.)
A. core dump
B. dmesg
C. nstrace
D. ns.conf
E. sysctl-a
Correct Answer: CD
Reference https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler/11/optimization/integrated- caching/troubleshooting-integrated-
caching.html


QUESTION 9
Which requirement must be addressed to implement the IP Reputation feature on a NetScaler MPX appliance?
A. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to api.bcti.brightcloud.com on port 443.
B. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to wiprep-rtu.s3-us-west- 2.amazonaws.com on port 80.
C. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to api.bcss.brightcloud.com on port 80.
D. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to wiprep-rtu.s3-us-west- 2.amazonaws.com on port 443.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Which content type takes the maximum advantage of web caching mechanisms to boost performance?
A. Pseudo-Dynamic Content
B. Pseudo-Static Content
C. Static Content
D. Dynamic Content
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
A Citrix Engineer needs to configure an application firewall profile to ensure that the images uploaded on the website
are NOT malicious. The engineer needs to create a policy to filter the upload requests and ensure that they are in JPEG
format.
Which expression can the engineer use to fulfill this requirement?
A. http.req.url.endswith (“.jpeg) and and http.req.method.eq (POST)
B. http.req.url.contains (“.jpeg) and and http.req.method.eq (GET)
C. http.req.url.endswith (“.jpeg) || http.req.method.eq (GET)
D. http.req.header (“Content-Type”).contains (“image/jpeg”) || http.req.method.eq(POST)
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
A Citrix Engineer needs to ensure that all traffic to the virtual server is blocked if NONE of the bound Application Firewall
policies are matched.
Which setting can the engineer configure to meet this requirement?
A. set appfw settings –undefAction APPFW_BLOCK
B. set ns httpProfile nshttp_default_profile-dropInvalReqs DISABLED
C. set ns httpProfie nshttp_default_profile –dropInvalReqs ENABLED
D. set appfw settings –defaultProfile APPFW_BLOCK
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure the Application Firewall to do a credit card check using the command-line
interface (CLI) and configure the profile to obscure the credit card number. Which parameter will the engineer add in the
CLI to encrypt the credit card numbers in the logs?
A. -creditCardAction BLOCK
B. -creditCardMaxAllowed
C. -creditCardXOut ON
D. -doSecureCreditCardLogging ON
Correct Answer: D

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Latest effective Citrix CCP-V 1Y0-311 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is managing a Provisioning Services Farm with the following specifications:

A single Farm with one Site, with two Provisioning Services servers deployed with 8 vCPU each, which are supporting
a total of 500 target devices in production.
-The ports and threads have been configured so that each server can stream concurrently to 250 devices each.
-Due to an upcoming merger, 250 more target devices must be supported by the existing Provisioning Services farm.
-The Provisioning Services servers must handle the extra capacity while aligning to Citrix leading practices for
resiliency.
Which step should the engineer perform to accomplish these requirements?
A.
Isolate the Provisioning Services screaming traffic.
B.
Add two additional Provisioning Services servers to the Site.
C.
Maintain the existing configurations for the environment.
D.
Add one additional Provisioning Services server to the Site.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which three benefits can a Citrix Engineer achieve using the robocpy command to replicate vDisk files between storage
locations? (Choose three.)
A. It tolerates network disruptions during file transfer and continues copying after network is restored.
B. It is able to replicate files to multiple concurrent Stores using a “hub and spoke” model.
C. It preserves vDisk file time stamps.
D. It can be included in a script to automate replication at scheduled times.
E. It can be configured to use a limited amount of bandwidth for each file copy.
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 3
What is the default auto-launch behavior for published applications and desktops within a XenApp and XenDesktop
environment?
A. If a single application is published to the user, it will launch automatically.
B. No published applications or desktops launch automatically.
C. If a single desktop is published to the user, it will launch automatically.
D. All published applications launch automatically.
E. All published desktops launch automatically.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
A Citric Engineer is checking the IOPS on the local vDisk Store after setting up and configuring the environment. Which
two tools can the engineer use to check the IOPS for the Store? (Choose two.)
A. Performance Monitor
B. Process Monitor
C. Process Explorer
D. Disk Management
Correct Answer: AB
Referencehttp://www.basvankaam.com/2014/07/29/the-ultimate-iops-cheat-sheet/


QUESTION 5
Scenario: An administrator has enabled a Citrix policy called HDX Policy that enables extra compression for moving and
still images for user connections greater than 400 Kbps.
Branch Repeater VPX is then deployed to all remote offices; however, users report NO appreciable benefits.
Which change should be made to HDX Policy?
A. Session Reliability should be disabled.
B. The Branch Repeater filter should be invoked.
C. Overall session bandwidth should be added to the policy.
D. The threshold value should be increased by 100-200 Kbps.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Scenario: Currently users log in to their desktop and are prompted several times for credentials while accessing XenApp
published applications. The XenApp Administrator is asked to configure pass-through authentication to ensure that
users only log in to their desktop and will NOT get prompted anymore.
Which three components will need to be configured when setting up pass-through authentication? (Choose three.)
A. Web Interface.
B. ICAClient.ADM.
C. Citrix Receiver.
D. XenApp Servers.
E. Citrix User policy.
F. Citrix Single sign-on.
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 7
Users complain that it is taking longer to access applications now than it did last week.
What is the best way to determine what changed from last week to this week?
A. Review Configuration Logging data.
B. ReviewEdgeSight troubleshooting data.
C. Review EdgeSight Active Application Monitoring data.
D. Review published application properties from a previous version of the datastore with the current version.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Scenario: All users connect from thin clients to a XenApp hosted desktop. Recently, the Order Entry team has been
printing all documents in color. A session printers policy has been created and applied to this user group. How can the
XenApp Administrator ensure that these printers default to a setting of monochrome?
A. Modify the Printer Properties Retention Policy.
B. Change the universal driver preference policy to default to PCL4.
C. Modify the existing session printing policy with the required printer settings.
D. Adjust the Citrix Universal Printer default settings in the registry of the XenApp servers.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
What happens when no free RAM is available with the `Cache in device RAM with overflow on hard disk\\’ write cache
option?
A. New writes are moved to the overflow disk on the target device.
B. Older writes are moved to the overflow disk on the target device.
C. New writes are moved to the overflow on the Provisioning Services server.
D. Older writes are moved to the overflow disk on the Provisioning Services server.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which update requires a Citrix Engineer to reverse image a vDisk?
A. Target device software
B. Hypervisor tools
C. Anti-virus software
D. OS service pack
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Which three actions are necessary when using the versioning vDisk update process? (Choose three.)
A. Perform updates using a single target device.
B. Make a full copy of the vDisk.
C. Put the vDisk into Private mode.
D. Create a maintenance version of the vDisk
E. Promote the changes to production.
F. Update the properties of the production target devices to use the updated vDisk.
Correct Answer: CDE


QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is designing a Provisioning Services environment based on the following environmental
factors:
-A large number of target devices are spread over multiple subnets.
-The subnets include non-Provisioning Services machines that rely on booting over the network
-A security mandate prohibits the use of TFTP.
-The XenDesktop Setup Wizard is used to create the target devices.
Which Provisioning Services boot method is appropriate for the target devices?
A. BDM Disk Partition
B. BIOS Embedded
C. DHCP Options
D. BDM ISO
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
What is the default priority order for selecting the preferred zone in a multi-zone XenApp and XenDesktop
environment?
A. User Location; Application Home; User Home
B. User Home; Application Home; User Location
C. Application Home, User Home; User Location
D. User Location; User Home; Application Home
E. Application Home; User Location; User Home
Correct Answer: C

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