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QUESTION 1
An end user needs to completely re-install Windows 7 on a home computer but it did not come with any OS discs. How
would a technician accomplish this?
A. Recovery partition
B. Primary partition
C. System restore
D. System refresh
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following
security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet?
A. Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only
B. Change the default username and password
C. Enable the wireless AP\\’s MAC filtering
D. Enable the wireless AP\\’s WPA2 security
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
The network administrator has changed the IP address of Computer A from 192. 168. 120 to 10. 10. 1020 and now Jane
a user, is unable to connect to file shares on Computer A from Computers using the computer name.
Instructions:
Using the available tools, resolve the connectivity issues. When you have completed the simulation, please select the
done button to submit your answer.
Correct Answer: Please review explanation for detailed answer
Please check the below images for detailed connectivity steps to do:

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QUESTION 4
A technician is attempting to troubleshoot a Linux home folder issue, but does not remember which directory is current.
Which of the following tools should the technician use to find the current directory?
A. dir
B. sudo
C. cd
D. pwd
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
A technician is attempting to manually migrate a user\\’s profile from one Windows PC to another. Files in the user\\’s
My Documents folder cannot be copied. Some files in question have green letters in the filenames. Which of the
following file systems is causing this to occur?
A. exFAT
B. COMPRESSED
C. EFS
D. NTFS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
A company has subscribed to a cloud service, paying monthly for a block of services and being billed incrementally
when they exceed the monthly fee. Which of the following cloud concepts does this represent?
A. Measured service
B. Rapid elasticity
C. On-demand D. Resource pooling
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
The user is having trouble using the mouse. The technician believes a program stopped responding that caused the
issue and asks the customer to hold down “Ctrl + Shift + Esc” to verify. Which of the following did the technician
launch?
A. Task Manager
B. Control Panel
C. Services
D. MSCONFIG
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A technician replaced a video card on a desktop PC. The technician powers on the PC to install the device drivers. The
PC boots up and goes through the POST, but the screen goes black when trying to boot the operating system. Which of
the following steps should the technician perform NEXT to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Flash the BIOS
B. Reseat the video card
C. Boot the PC in safe mode
D. Replace the video card with a new one
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Data on full disk encrypted drives using BitLocker is MOST secure from loss when combined with which of the following
technologies?
A. USB authentication token
B. Filesystem access controls
C. Trusted platform module
D. Fingerprint reader
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
A customer calls an IT consultant to explain an issue they are having with their Windows 7 Professional PC. Windows
Update attempts to install patches upon each startup but fails on the same single update. The customer has attempted
to re-run Windows Update from Control Panel but the issue remains. Which of the following courses of action would
BEST resolve the problem?
A. Running a full DEFRAG on the system
B. Clearing the AppData temp folder entirely
C. Clearing the Windows Update download cache entirely
D. Uninstalling the Windows Update feature in Windows 7 and reinstalling it directly from the Microsoft website
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
An employee was arrested after it was determined that an office computer was used for illegal activity that damaged the
company. Which of the following MUST be documented on the employee\\’s computer to ensure the evidence is
admissible on court?
A. Software inventory
B. Personality identifiable information
C. Security best practices
D. Chain of custody
Correct Answer: D
Reference https://epic.org/security/computer_search_guidelines.txt

 

QUESTION 12
When moving files from a Microsoft gaming console, which of the following command line utilities is recommended to
transfer files?
A. IMAP
B. XCOPY
C. DISKPART
D. FDISK
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A company that manages its own cloud, while utilizing a third-party vendor to help manage storage, is implementing
which of the following infrastructure types?
A. Hybrid
B. Community
C. Private
D. Public
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing?
A. It permits all traffic without logging.
B. It drops all traffic.
C. It inspects all traffic.
D. It permits and logs all traffic.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall?
A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity.
B. To protect one virtual network segment from another.
C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements.
D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session.
E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks.
Correct Answer: A
The term personal firewall typically applies to the basic software that can control Layer 3 and Layer 4 access to client
machines. HIPS provides several features that offer more robust security than a traditional personal firewall, such as
host intrusion prevention and protection against spyware, viruses, worms, Trojans, and other types of malware. Source:
Cisco Official Certification Guide, Personal Firewalls and Host Intrusion Prevention Systems, p.499

 

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 4
Which protocol offers data integrity, encryption, authentication, and antireplay functions for IPsec VPN?
A. AH protocol
B. ESP protocol
C. IKEv2 protocol
D. IKEv1 protocol
Correct Answer: B
IP Security Protocol—Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is a security protocol used to provide confidentiality (encryption), data origin
authentication, integrity, optional antireplay service, and limited traffic flow confidentiality by defeating traffic flow
analysis.
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=24833andamp;seqNum=3

 

QUESTION 5
Which ports need to be active for AAA server to integrate with Microsoft AD
A. 445 and 8080
B. 443 and 389
C. 445 and 389
D. 443 and 8080
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
Split tunneling is a computer networking concept which allows a mobile user to access dissimilar security domains like a
public network (e.g., the Internet) and a local LAN or WAN at the same time, using the same or different network
connections. This connection state is usually facilitated through the simultaneous use of, a Local Area Network (LAN)
Network Interface Card (NIC), radio NIC, Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) NIC, and VPN client software
application without the benefit of access control. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Split_tunneling

 

QUESTION 7
You are configuring a NAT rule on a Cisco ASA. Which description of a mapped interface is true?
A. It is mandatory for all firewall modes.
B. It is mandatory for identity NAT only.
C. It is optional in transparent mode.
D. It is optional in routed mode.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which is a key security component of MDM deployment?
A. Using the network-specific installer package
B. Using self-signed certificates to validate the server – generate a self-signed certificate to connect to the server (Deployed
certificates; Issued certificate to the server likely)
C. Using application tunnel
D. Using MS-CHAPv2 as primary EAP method
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
When is the best time to perform an anti-virus signature update?
A. Every time a new update is available.
B. When the local scanner has detected a new virus.
C. When a new virus is discovered in the wild.
D. When the system detects a browser hook.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A
Firewalls are generally designed to be on the network perimeter and can handle dropping a lot of the non- legitimate
traffic (attacks, scans, etc.) very quickly at the ingress interface, often in hardware. An IDS/IPS are, generally speaking,
doing more deep packet inspections and that is a much more computationally expensive undertaking. For that reason,
we prefer to filter what gets to it with the firewall line of defense before engaging the IDS/IPS to analyze the traffic flow.
Source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/discussion/12428821/correct-placement-idsips- network-architecture

 

QUESTION 11
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A
Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST) is a protocol proposal by Cisco Systems as a replacement for
LEAP. The protocol was designed to address the weaknesses of LEAP while preserving the “lightweight”
implementation. Use of server certificates is optional in EAP-FAST. EAP-FAST uses a Protected Access Credential
(PAC) to establish a TLS tunnel in which client credentials are verified. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extensible_Authentication_Protocol

 

QUESTION 12
What are the primary attack methods of VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP hopping
B. Switch spoofing
C. CAM-table overflow
D. Double tagging
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13
Which command do you enter to enable authentication for OSPF on an interface?
A. router(config-if)#ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 CISCOPASS
B. router(config-router)#area 0 authentication message-digest
C. router(config-router)#ip ospf authentication-key CISCOPASS
D. router(config-if)#ip ospf authentication message-digest
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which statement about threat actors is true?
A. They are any company assets that are threatened.
B. They are any assets that are threatened.
C. They are perpetrators of attacks.
D. They are victims of attacks.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data normalization
B. data availability
C. data protection
D. data signature
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are the three metrics, or andquot; scores,andquot; of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System
(CVSS)? (Select all that apply.)
A. Baseline score
B. Base score
C. Environmental score
D. Temporal score
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 4
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable
component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which two potions are the primary 5-tuple components? (Choose two)
A. destination IP address
B. header length
C. sequence number
D. checksum
E. source IP address
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the Exhibit. A customer reports that they cannot access your organization\\’s website. Which option is a
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A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial-of-service.
B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet censors.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are not components of the 5-tuple of flow in NetFlow? (Select all that apply.)
A. Source IP address
B. Flow record ID
C. Gateway
D. Source port
E. Destination port
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 8
Which CVSS metric describes the conditions that are beyond the attacker\\’s control that must exist to exploit the
vulnerability?
A. User interaction
B. Attack vector
C. attack complexity
D. privileges required
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which signature type results in a legitime alert been dismissed?
A. True negative
B. False negative
C. True Positive
D. False Positive
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following Linux file systems not only supports journaling but also modifies important data structures of the
file system, such as the ones destined to store the file data for better performance and reliability?
A. GRUB
B. LILO
C. Ext4
D. FAT32
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high. Which potential result is true?lead4pass 210-255 exam question q12

A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
Which of the following is one of the main goals of the CSIRT?
A. To configure the organization\\’s firewalls
B. To monitor the organization\\’s IPS devices
C. To minimize and control the damage associated with incidents, provide guidance for mitigation, and work to prevent
future incidents
D. To hire security professionals who will be part of the InfoSec team of the organization.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up.
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you.
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration.
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 2
Which component of the SD-Access fabric is responsible for communicating with networks that are external to the
fabric?
A. edge nodes
B. control plane nodes
C. intermediate nodes
D. border nodes
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three.)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apple Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 4
Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose two.)
A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus
B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements
C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership
D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling
E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRE tunnel to a mobility controller for policy
and application visibility
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 5
Which are two advantages of a “one switch at a time” approach to integrating SD-Access into an existing brownfield
environment? (Choose two.)
A. appropriate for campus and remote site environment
B. allows simplified testing prior to cutover
C. ideal for protecting recent investments while upgrading legacy hardware
D. involves the least risk of all approaches
E. opens up many new design and deployment opportunities
F. allows simplified roll back
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.)
A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SE, you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than contributing to demo
innovation.
B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations.
C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details.
D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach.
E. During a demo, you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 7
What are the three foundational elements required for the new operational paradigm? (Choose three.)
A. centralization
B. assurance
C. application QoS
D. multiple technologies at multiple OSI layers
E. policy-based automated provisioning of network
F. fabric
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 8
Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform?
A. single sign-on
B. IPv6 transport (WAN)
C. 2-factor authentication
D. license enforcement
E. reporting
F. non-Ethernet interfaces
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs
B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices
C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set
D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks
E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 10
What should you do if you are looking at a strategic win with a customer and the customer wants to examine Cisco ISE
for longer than a few weeks?
A. Give them some of our flash files that can be played on any browser.
B. Set them up with an account on a Cisco UCS server that hosts ISE.
C. Set them up with a dCloud account.
D. Give them our ISE YouTube videos.
E. Provide them with a downloadable POV lit.
F. Point them to our dCloud demo library.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.)
A. use of overlays
B. use of Virtual Network IDs
C. focus on user endpoints
D. use of group policy
E. use of Endpoint Groups
F. use of Scalable Group Tags
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 12
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which Cisco vEdge router offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput?
A. Cisco vEdge 5000
B. Cisco vEdge 1000
C. Cisco vEdge 2000
D. Cisco vEdge 100
Correct Answer: A

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The CCIE Service Provider exam validate professionals who have the expertise to design, implement, diagnose, and troubleshoot complex Service Provider highly available network infrastructure and services based on dual stack solutions (IPv4 and IPv6); understand how the network and service components interoperate; and understand the functional requirements and translate into specific device configurations.

Free test Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
In Ethernet Aggregation applications, which option is needed when the U-PE connects to an N-PE and broadband
remote access server?
A. Ethernet Multipoint Service
B. E1
C. VPLS
D. DSLAM
E. wire emulation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What does UDLD stand for?
A. UniDirectional Loop Detection
B. Unspecified Distribution Label Detection
C. Unified Distribution Label Direction
D. UniDirectional Link Detection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS on its network. The ISP is currently redesigning the network, to improve
performance and convergence. Which two IS-IS features meet the ISP requirements when changes happen on the
network? (Choose two.)
A. IP Event Dampening
B. Bidirectional Forwarding failure detection
C. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
D. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP generation exponential backoff timers
E. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
Correct Answer: DE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_isis/configuration/15-s/irs-15-s-book/irs-fscnt.html

QUESTION 4
Which two characteristics are benefits of MPLS LDP lossless MD5 session authentication? (Choose two.)
A. It allows for asymmetric passwords.
B. It uses the MPLS LDP targeted hello, which is authenticated, instead of the regular MPLS LDP hello, which cannot be
authenticated.
C. It allows you to achieve or change LDP MD5 session authentication without interrupting the LDP session.
D. It uses the MD5 method, which is a more secure authentication method than traditional MPLS LDP authentication,
which uses a cleartext method.
E. It enables authentication for UDP MPLS LDP discovery packets as well as TCP MPLS LDP label exchange
sessions.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-
os/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_ldp_lossless_md5.pdf

QUESTION 5
A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that
the service level agreement has been honored?
A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now
C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now
E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 6
Which statement about provider-independent and provider-assigned address blocks is true?
A. There is no difference.
B. PI space is not globally routable and can be used as private addressing.
C. PA space is globally routable and can be obtained from IANA by all organizations.
D. PA space is assigned by the ISP and PI space is assigned by the regional registry. Both are globally routable.
E. PI and PA blocks are both assigned by the regional registry to all organizations.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which protocol provides an alternative to the STP, which provides a way to control network loops, handle link failures,
and improve convergence time and can coexist with STP?
A. PBB-EVPN
B. IEEE 802.1ah
C. Flex links
D. E-TREE
E. REP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS
domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6
multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it?
A. IGMP snooping
B. MLD snooping
C. MLD querier
D. IGMP version 3
E. MLD version 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q9

Routers R1 and R2 have exchanged label binding information. What is preventing the labels from populating the MPLS
forwarding table?
A. MTU on the serial interface cannot accommodate labels.
B. Cisco Express Forwarding is not running.
C. The MPLS label distribution protocol is mismatched.
D. Inbound access list 100 is applied on the serial interface.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two options describe how 6RD compares to automatic 6to4 tunneling? (Choose two.)
A. 6RD provides a controlled exit point from the IPv6 Internet.
B. 6RD provides a controlled entry point to the IPv6 Internet.
C. 6RD is widely available in current OS implementations.
D. Automatic 6to4 tunneling is widely available in current OS implementations.
E. Automatic 6to4 tunneling and 6RD use a well-known IPv6 prefix.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11lead4pass 400-201 exam question q11

Refer to the exhibit AS 200 uses the CSC solution provided by AS 100 with regards to the packets originated on ABC-
Site2 going toward to ABC-Site1, how many labels are in the label stack of these packets when they cross the link
between CSC-PE2 and CS-P?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two factors are significant drivers for 5G in IoT networks? (Choose two.)
A. Programmability
B. Energy Efficiency
C. Mass Connectivity
D. Higher data rates
E. Lower Latency
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13lead4pass 400-201 exam question q13

Refer to the exhibit. Which physical interface provides the clock information?
A. Gi0/4
B. Gi0/11
C. Gi0/10
D. Gi0/5
Correct Answer: C

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Citrix Education – 340: http://training.citrix.com/mod/ctxcatalog/course.php?id=1869

Latest effective Citrix CCP-N 1Y0-340 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure an Application Firewall policy for an online shopping website called
“mycompany.com”. As a security measure, the shopping cart application is hosted on a separate directory “/mycart” on
the backend server. The engineer configured a profile to secure the connections to this shopping cart and now needs to
ensure that this profile is allied to all incoming connections to the shopping cart.
Which policy expression will accomplish this requirement?
A. http.req.url. contains(“/mycart”) and http:req.url.hostname.eq(“mycompany.com”)
B. http.req.url. contains(“/mycart”) || http:req.url.hostname.eq(“mycompany.com”)
C. http.req.header (“url”).contains (“/mycart”) || http.req.url.contains (“mycompany.com”)
D. http.req.header (“url”).contains (“/mycart”) andand http:req.url.contains (“mycompy.com”)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A Citrix Engineer needs to optimize the Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) content sent from the backend server before
being forwarded to the client. Which option can the engineer use to accomplish CSS optimization?
A. Move to Head Tag
B. Shrink to Attributes
C. Lazy Load
D. Convert to WebP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure Application Firewall to handle SQL injection issues. However, after
enabling SQL injection check, the backend server started dropping user requests.
The Application Firewall configuration is as follows:
add appfw profile Test123 –startURLAction none- denyURLAction nonecrossSiteScriptingAction none
–SQLInjectionAction log stats- SQLInjection TransformSpecialChars ON –SQLInjectionCheckSQLWildChars ON-
fieldFormatAction none
bufferOverflowAction none- responseContentType “application/octet-stream”–XMLSQLInjectionAction none-
XMLXSSAction none-XMLWSIAction none-XMLValidationAction none
What does the engineer need to change in the Application Firewall configuration?
A. Enable-XMLSQLInjectionAction none
B. Enable-XMLValidationAction none
C. Disable- SQLInjectionCheckSQLWildChars ON
D. Disable- SQLInjectionTransformSpecialChars ON
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which reason can cause fail over in a NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) High Availability pair?
A. A secondary server loses connectivity in the LAN.
B. The engineer manually forces the secondary server to shut down.
C. A primary server encounters a critical software issue.
D. A primary server does NOT receive the SNMP traps from the instances connected.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
A website hosts highly dynamic content that is frequently requested in bursts of high user access. Which configuration
will reduce traffic to the origin server while optimizing client performance?
A. –pollEveryTime NO
B. –expireAtLastByte YES
C. –flashCache YES
D. –heurExpiryParam 0
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
A Citrix Engineer is considered that malicious users could exploit a web system by sending a large cookie. Which
security check can the engineer implement to address this concern?
A. Field Formats
B. Content-type
C. Buffer Overflow
D. Start URL
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which mechanism does the NetScaler use to enable a safe and speedy data exchange between a client/server initial
TCP handshake?
A. TCP Fast Open (TFO)
B. TCP Burst Rate Control
C. TCP Hystart
D. TCP Time Stamp
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
A Citrix Engineer configures the integrated caching feature to cache both static and dynamic content, but the integrated
cache feature does NOT work as expected. Which two resources can the engineer use to troubleshoot this integrated
cache issue? (Choose two.)
A. core dump
B. dmesg
C. nstrace
D. ns.conf
E. sysctl-a
Correct Answer: CD
Reference https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler/11/optimization/integrated- caching/troubleshooting-integrated-
caching.html


QUESTION 9
Which requirement must be addressed to implement the IP Reputation feature on a NetScaler MPX appliance?
A. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to api.bcti.brightcloud.com on port 443.
B. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to wiprep-rtu.s3-us-west- 2.amazonaws.com on port 80.
C. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to api.bcss.brightcloud.com on port 80.
D. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to wiprep-rtu.s3-us-west- 2.amazonaws.com on port 443.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Which content type takes the maximum advantage of web caching mechanisms to boost performance?
A. Pseudo-Dynamic Content
B. Pseudo-Static Content
C. Static Content
D. Dynamic Content
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
A Citrix Engineer needs to configure an application firewall profile to ensure that the images uploaded on the website
are NOT malicious. The engineer needs to create a policy to filter the upload requests and ensure that they are in JPEG
format.
Which expression can the engineer use to fulfill this requirement?
A. http.req.url.endswith (“.jpeg) and and http.req.method.eq (POST)
B. http.req.url.contains (“.jpeg) and and http.req.method.eq (GET)
C. http.req.url.endswith (“.jpeg) || http.req.method.eq (GET)
D. http.req.header (“Content-Type”).contains (“image/jpeg”) || http.req.method.eq(POST)
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
A Citrix Engineer needs to ensure that all traffic to the virtual server is blocked if NONE of the bound Application Firewall
policies are matched.
Which setting can the engineer configure to meet this requirement?
A. set appfw settings –undefAction APPFW_BLOCK
B. set ns httpProfile nshttp_default_profile-dropInvalReqs DISABLED
C. set ns httpProfie nshttp_default_profile –dropInvalReqs ENABLED
D. set appfw settings –defaultProfile APPFW_BLOCK
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure the Application Firewall to do a credit card check using the command-line
interface (CLI) and configure the profile to obscure the credit card number. Which parameter will the engineer add in the
CLI to encrypt the credit card numbers in the logs?
A. -creditCardAction BLOCK
B. -creditCardMaxAllowed
C. -creditCardXOut ON
D. -doSecureCreditCardLogging ON
Correct Answer: D

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Citrix Education – 311: http://training.citrix.com/mod/ctxcatalog/course.php?id=1808

Latest effective Citrix CCP-V 1Y0-311 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is managing a Provisioning Services Farm with the following specifications:

A single Farm with one Site, with two Provisioning Services servers deployed with 8 vCPU each, which are supporting
a total of 500 target devices in production.
-The ports and threads have been configured so that each server can stream concurrently to 250 devices each.
-Due to an upcoming merger, 250 more target devices must be supported by the existing Provisioning Services farm.
-The Provisioning Services servers must handle the extra capacity while aligning to Citrix leading practices for
resiliency.
Which step should the engineer perform to accomplish these requirements?
A.
Isolate the Provisioning Services screaming traffic.
B.
Add two additional Provisioning Services servers to the Site.
C.
Maintain the existing configurations for the environment.
D.
Add one additional Provisioning Services server to the Site.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which three benefits can a Citrix Engineer achieve using the robocpy command to replicate vDisk files between storage
locations? (Choose three.)
A. It tolerates network disruptions during file transfer and continues copying after network is restored.
B. It is able to replicate files to multiple concurrent Stores using a “hub and spoke” model.
C. It preserves vDisk file time stamps.
D. It can be included in a script to automate replication at scheduled times.
E. It can be configured to use a limited amount of bandwidth for each file copy.
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 3
What is the default auto-launch behavior for published applications and desktops within a XenApp and XenDesktop
environment?
A. If a single application is published to the user, it will launch automatically.
B. No published applications or desktops launch automatically.
C. If a single desktop is published to the user, it will launch automatically.
D. All published applications launch automatically.
E. All published desktops launch automatically.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
A Citric Engineer is checking the IOPS on the local vDisk Store after setting up and configuring the environment. Which
two tools can the engineer use to check the IOPS for the Store? (Choose two.)
A. Performance Monitor
B. Process Monitor
C. Process Explorer
D. Disk Management
Correct Answer: AB
Referencehttp://www.basvankaam.com/2014/07/29/the-ultimate-iops-cheat-sheet/


QUESTION 5
Scenario: An administrator has enabled a Citrix policy called HDX Policy that enables extra compression for moving and
still images for user connections greater than 400 Kbps.
Branch Repeater VPX is then deployed to all remote offices; however, users report NO appreciable benefits.
Which change should be made to HDX Policy?
A. Session Reliability should be disabled.
B. The Branch Repeater filter should be invoked.
C. Overall session bandwidth should be added to the policy.
D. The threshold value should be increased by 100-200 Kbps.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Scenario: Currently users log in to their desktop and are prompted several times for credentials while accessing XenApp
published applications. The XenApp Administrator is asked to configure pass-through authentication to ensure that
users only log in to their desktop and will NOT get prompted anymore.
Which three components will need to be configured when setting up pass-through authentication? (Choose three.)
A. Web Interface.
B. ICAClient.ADM.
C. Citrix Receiver.
D. XenApp Servers.
E. Citrix User policy.
F. Citrix Single sign-on.
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 7
Users complain that it is taking longer to access applications now than it did last week.
What is the best way to determine what changed from last week to this week?
A. Review Configuration Logging data.
B. ReviewEdgeSight troubleshooting data.
C. Review EdgeSight Active Application Monitoring data.
D. Review published application properties from a previous version of the datastore with the current version.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Scenario: All users connect from thin clients to a XenApp hosted desktop. Recently, the Order Entry team has been
printing all documents in color. A session printers policy has been created and applied to this user group. How can the
XenApp Administrator ensure that these printers default to a setting of monochrome?
A. Modify the Printer Properties Retention Policy.
B. Change the universal driver preference policy to default to PCL4.
C. Modify the existing session printing policy with the required printer settings.
D. Adjust the Citrix Universal Printer default settings in the registry of the XenApp servers.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
What happens when no free RAM is available with the `Cache in device RAM with overflow on hard disk\\’ write cache
option?
A. New writes are moved to the overflow disk on the target device.
B. Older writes are moved to the overflow disk on the target device.
C. New writes are moved to the overflow on the Provisioning Services server.
D. Older writes are moved to the overflow disk on the Provisioning Services server.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which update requires a Citrix Engineer to reverse image a vDisk?
A. Target device software
B. Hypervisor tools
C. Anti-virus software
D. OS service pack
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Which three actions are necessary when using the versioning vDisk update process? (Choose three.)
A. Perform updates using a single target device.
B. Make a full copy of the vDisk.
C. Put the vDisk into Private mode.
D. Create a maintenance version of the vDisk
E. Promote the changes to production.
F. Update the properties of the production target devices to use the updated vDisk.
Correct Answer: CDE


QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is designing a Provisioning Services environment based on the following environmental
factors:
-A large number of target devices are spread over multiple subnets.
-The subnets include non-Provisioning Services machines that rely on booting over the network
-A security mandate prohibits the use of TFTP.
-The XenDesktop Setup Wizard is used to create the target devices.
Which Provisioning Services boot method is appropriate for the target devices?
A. BDM Disk Partition
B. BIOS Embedded
C. DHCP Options
D. BDM ISO
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
What is the default priority order for selecting the preferred zone in a multi-zone XenApp and XenDesktop
environment?
A. User Location; Application Home; User Home
B. User Home; Application Home; User Location
C. Application Home, User Home; User Location
D. User Location; User Home; Application Home
E. Application Home; User Location; User Home
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is an example of the way in which a Trojan horse commonly spreads to other computers?
A. It inserts copies of itself into other computer programs
B. It traverses a network by exploiting a vulnerability
C. It pretends to be a document from a friend
D. It downloads from an infected web page
Correct Answer: D
Trojan horses are commonly found on websites that offer free software, such as shareware programs. These communal
gathering spots on the Web give Trojan horse writers a degree of anonymity along with the chance of attacking as
many
random victims as possible. Since website operators rarely have time to thoroughly examine every file posted, an
occasional Trojan horse can slip through the checking procedures unnoticed.
Reference: HOW TROJAN HORSES SPREAD
http://etutorials.org/Misc/computer+book/Part+2+Dangerous+Threats+on+the+Internet/Chapter+8+Trojan
+Horses-+Beware+of+Geeks+Bearing+Gifts/HOW+TROJAN+HORSES+SPREAD/


QUESTION 2
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. The “Simple Spaces” resiliency
type in Windows 8.1 Storage Spaces requires at least five drives in order to protect a system from a single-drive failure.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. two-way mirror
C. Parity Spaces
D. three-way mirror
Correct Answer: D
Two-way mirror spaces require at least two drives, and three-way mirror spaces require at least five.
Mirror spaces are designed for increased performance and protect your files from drive failure by keeping more than
one copy. Two-way mirror spaces make two copies of your files and can tolerate one drive failure, while three-way
mirror spaces can tolerate two drive failures.
Reference: Storage Spaces: FAQ http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-8/storage-spaces-pools


QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Microsoft Azure storage
solutions replicates “four” copies of your data within a single region. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes
the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes
the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. two
C. three
D. six
Correct Answer: C
Geo-redundant storage (GRS). Geo-redundant storage is enabled for your storage account by default when you create
it. GRS maintains six copies of your data. With GRS, your data is replicated three times within the primary region, and is
also replicated three times in a secondary region hundreds of miles away from the primary region, providing the highest
level of durability.
Reference: Introduction to Microsoft Azure Storage https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/storage-
introduction/


QUESTION 4
Which Microsoft Intune Company Portal App platform requires IT deployment?
A. Android
B. Windows Phone 8.1
C. iOS
D. Windows RT
Correct Answer: B
Windows Intune Company Portal for Windows Phone 8/8.1 requires IT deployment Incorrect answers:
Not A: Android requires Direct User Installation.
Not C: iOS requires Direct User Installation.
Not D: Windows 8.x (x86/x64 and RT) supports both IT deployment and Direct User Installation.
Reference: Windows Intune Company Portals for iOS and Android Now Available
http://blogs.technet.com/b/windowsintune/archive/2013/11/25/windows-intune-company-portals-for-ios- and-android-
now-available.aspx


QUESTION 5
Which type of information about users does biometrics evaluate?
A. phrases a user has memorized
B. where a user is located
C. physical characteristics of a user
D. objects a user carries with him or her
Correct Answer: C
Biometrics refers to authentication techniques that rely on measurable physical characteristics that can be automatically
checked.
Note: There are several types of biometric identification schemes: face: the analysis of facial characteristics fingerprint:
the analysis of an individual\\’s unique fingerprints hand geometry: the analysis of the shape of the hand and the length
of the fingers retina: the analysis of the capillary vessels located at the back of the eye iris: the analysis of the colored
ring that surrounds the eye\\’s pupil signature: the analysis of the way a person signs his name. vein: the analysis of
pattern of veins in the back if the hand and the wrist voice: the analysis of the tone, pitch, cadence and frequency of a
person\\’s voice. Reference: http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/B/biometrics.html


QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. When BitLocker is enabled and
and protecting a local drive, Trusted Platform Module (TPM) provides “pre- start system integrity verification for system
and operating system drives”. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No
change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. 256-bit encryption that uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. a location that stores recovery keys for removable drives
D. boot sector mapping for the startup process
Correct Answer: C
Computers that incorporate a TPM have the ability to create cryptographic keys and encrypt them so that they can be
decrypted only by the TPM. This process, often called “wrapping” or “binding” a key, can help protect the key from
disclosure. Each TPM has a root “wrapping” key, called the Storage Root Key (SRK), which is stored within the TPM
itself. The private portion of a key created in a TPM is never exposed to any other component, software, process, or
person.
Reference: Windows Trusted Platform Module Management Step-by-Step Guide https://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/cc749022%28v=ws.10%29.aspx


QUESTION 7
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. You have a Windows 8.1
computer in a WorkGroup. To share the C:\Work folder and make it available to offline users, you need to use the
“public” share option. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is
needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. advanced
C. HomeGroup
D. basic
Correct Answer: B
In the advanced sharing dialog box Click on “Caching” button. In “Offline settings” dialog box, you can set up caching for
files and programs which are offline.lead4pass 98-368 exam question q7You have the following options:
i) Only the files and programs that users specify are available offline: If you select this option then, users specify the files
and programs which can be accessed offline. It is the default option. ii) No files or programs from the share are
available
offline: If you select this option then, caching will be turned off.
iii) All files and programs that users open from the share are automatically available offline: If you select this option then,
caching is turned on for all files and programs and they can be accessed offline.
Check option “Optimize for performance”. lead4pass 98-368 exam question q7-1Reference: How to set advanced sharing options, custom permissions, caching for folder in Windows 7?
http://www.moreprocess.com/operating-systems/windows-7/how-to-set-advanced-sharing-options-custom- permissions-
caching-forfolder-in-windows-7


QUESTION 8
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. “The Windows Store” allows
users of Windows 8 and Windows 8.1 computers to view and install applications that the users\\’ administrators make
available to them. The computers must be attached to the domain, and the user must be logged in with domain
credentials. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If
the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Microsoft SharePoint
C. The Microsoft Intune Company Portal App
D. The System Center Configuration Manager Company Portal App
Correct Answer: D
The System Center Configuration Manager Company Portal app allows users of Windows 8, Windows 8.1 and Windows
10 machines to view and install applications made available to the user by their administrators. The machine must be
managed by Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager, or later, with the agent installed.
End User Machines requirements:
*
Windows 8 Pro, Windows 8 Enterprise, Windows 8.1 Pro, Windows 8.1 Enterprise, Windows 10 Pro or Windows 10
Enterprise
*
Machine must be domain-joined
*
User must be logged on with domain credentials
*
System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager (or later) client agent must be installed Reference: System Center
Configuration Manager Company Portal App https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/download/details.aspx?id=40795


QUESTION 9
You manage 200 desktop computers at your school\\’s main computer lab.
A critical update was released.
You need to determine if the update was installed on one of the computers in the lab.
What should you do?
A. View the Event Viewer Security log
B. Check System Status in Control Panel
C. View Windows update history
D. Go to the System Action Center
Correct Answer: C
Follow these steps to see which Windows updates are installed on your computer.
1.
Open Windows Update by clicking the Start button Picture of the Start button. In the search box, type Update, and then,
in the list of results, click Windows Update.
2.
In the left pane, click View update history.
Reference: See which Windows updates are installed http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/which-windows-
updates-installed#1TC=windows-7


QUESTION 10
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. If you need to make storage
space available for an update on a Windows Phone 8.1 device, you should use “Action Center” to move installed
programs to and other data from the phone to the SD card. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the
statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the
statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. File Explorer
C. Phone Update
D. Storage Sense
Correct Answer: D
To uninstall apps and games or move them to an SD card using Storage Sense You can uninstall apps and games to
free up space on your phone, or move them to an SD card (if you have one installed).
1.
In the App list, go to Storage Sense Storage Sense Tile.
2.
Go to Phone > Apps+games.
3.
Tap an app or game file, and then tap Uninstall or Move to SD.
Reference: Make room on my phone to update it https://www.windowsphone.com/en-us/how-to/wp8/basics/make-room-
on-my-phone-to-update-it


QUESTION 11
Which is a feature Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)?
A. manages Digital Rights Media (DRM) for digital media
B. provides a permissions system that works with any cloud-based storage solution
C. manages share and file permissions on all servers in enterprise
D. allow users to define who can open, modify, print, or forward a document
Correct Answer: D
Windows Rights Management Services (also called Rights Management Services, Active Directory Rights Management
Services or RMS) is a form of Information Rights Management used on Microsoft Windows that uses encryption and a
form of selective functionality denial for limiting access to documents such as corporate e-mail, Word documents, and
web pages, and the operations authorized users can perform on them. Companies can use this technology to encrypt
information stored in such document formats, and through policies embedded in the documents, prevent the protected
content from being decrypted except by specified people or groups, in certain environments, under certain conditions,
and for certain periods of time.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Active_Directory_Rights_Management_Services


QUESTION 12
Your new Windows 8.1 computer is connected to your home wireless network. You want to share music and photos on
your new computer with other members of your family. You want to avoid setting up separate user accounts for each
member of your family. A single password for all the shared files will suffice.
Which Windows 8.1 networking feature satisfies these requirements?
A. Network Discovery
B. HomeGroup
C. Virtual Private Network
D. Broadband (PPPoE)
Correct Answer: B
A homegroup makes it easier to share files and printers on a home network. You can share pictures, music, videos,
documents, and printers with other people in your homegroup. Other people can\\’t change the files that you share,
unless you give them permission to do so.
Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/what-is-a-homegroup


QUESTION 13
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. In order to install Microsoft
Intune client software on a computer, you need to be a member of that computer\\’s “Administrators” group. Instructions:
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Remote Management users
C. Power users
D. Remote Desktop users
Correct Answer: A
The account that installs the Intune client software must have local administrator permissions to that computer.
Reference: Requirements for Microsoft Intune https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn646950.aspx

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Latest effective CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A security analyst accesses corporate web pages and inputs random data in the forms. The response received includes
the type of database used and SQL commands that the database accepts. Which of the following should the security
analyst use to prevent this vulnerability?
A. Application fuzzing
B. Error handling
C. Input validation
D. Pointer dereference
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A database backup schedule consists of weekly full backups performed on Saturday at 12:00 a.m. and daily differential
backups also performed at 12:00 a.m. If the database is restored on Tuesday afternoon, which of the following is the
number of individual backups that would need to be applied to complete the database recovery?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A web application is configured to target browsers and allow access to bank accounts to siphon money to a foreign
account.
This is an example of which of the following attacks?
A. SQL injection
B. Header manipulation
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Flash cookie exploitation
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
During a third-party audit, it is determined that a member of the firewall team can request, approve, and implement a
new rule-set on the firewall.
Which of the following will the audit team most l likely recommend during the audit out brief?
A. Discretionary access control for the firewall team
B. Separation of duties policy for the firewall team
C. Least privilege for the firewall team
D. Mandatory access control for the firewall team
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A security administrator suspects that a DDoS attack is affecting the DNS server The administrator accesses a
workstation with the hostname of workstation01 on the network and obtains the following output from the if config
command:lead4pass sy0-501 exam question q5The administrator successfully pings the DNS server from the workstation. Which of the following commands should be
issued from the workstation to verify the DDoS attack is no longer occurring?
A. dig www.google.com
B. dig 192.168.1.254
C. dig workstationl.com
D. dig 192.168.1.26
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
A penetration testing is preparing for a client engagement in which the tester must provide data that proves and
validates the scanning tools\\’ results.
Which of the following is the best method for collecting this information?
A. Set up the scanning system\\’s firewall to permit and log all outbound connections
B. Use a protocol analyzer to log all pertinent network traffic
C. Configure network flow data logging on all scanning system
D. Enable debug level logging on the scanning system and all scanning tools used.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
An incident responder receives a call from a user who reports a computer is exhibiting symptoms consistent with a
malware infection. Which of the following steps should the responder perform NEXT?
A. Capture and document necessary information to assist in the response.
B. Request the user capture and provide a screenshot or recording of the symptoms.
C. Use a remote desktop client to collect and analyze the malware in real time.
D. Ask the user to back up files for later recovery.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
While reviewing the security controls in place for a web-based application, a security controls assessor notices that
there are no password strength requirements in place. Because of this vulnerability, passwords might be easily
discovered using a brute force attack.
Which of the following password requirements will MOST effectively improve the security posture of the application
against these attacks? (Select two)
A. Minimum complexity
B. Maximum age limit
C. Maximum length
D. Minimum length
E. Minimum age limit
F. Minimum re-use limit
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
A security administrator has been assigned to review the security posture of the standard corporate system image for
virtual machines. The security administrator conducts a thorough review of the system logs, installation procedures, and
network configuration of the VM image. Upon reviewing the access logs and user accounts, the security administrator
determines that several accounts will not be used in production.
Which of the following would correct the deficiencies?
A. Mandatory access controls
B. Disable remote login
C. Host hardening
D. Disabling services
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
A security administrator suspects a MITM attack aimed at impersonating the default gateway is underway. Which of the
following tools should the administrator use to detect this attack? (Select two.)
A. Ping
B. Ipconfig
C. Tracert
D. Netstat
E. Dig
F. Nslookup
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a document that contains detailed information about actions that include how something will be
done, when the actions will be performed, and penalties for failure?
A. MOU
B. ISA
C. BPA
D. SLA
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
An organization has hired a penetration tester to test the security of its ten web servers. The penetration tester is able to
gain root/administrative access in several servers by exploiting vulnerabilities associated with the implementation of
SMTP, POP, DNS, FTP, Telnet, and IMAP.
Which of the following recommendations should the penetration tester provide to the organization to better protect their
web servers in the future?
A. Use a honeypot
B. Disable unnecessary services
C. Implement transport layer security
D. Increase application event logging
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
To reduce disk consumption, an organization\\’s legal department has recently approved a new policy setting the data
retention period for sent email at six months. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure this goal is met?
A. Create a daily encrypted backup of the relevant emails.
B. Configure the email server to delete the relevant emails.
C. Migrate the relevant emails into an “Archived” folder.
D. Implement automatic disk compression on email servers.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A user needs to download tax documents from a financial website.
Which of the following is the website MOST likely to use for transmission of the tax document to the user\\’s browser?
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. SFTP
D. FTP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which of the following types of fire extinguishers are needed for combustible liquids\\’ fire such as gasoline and
kerosene?
A. Class C
B. Class B
C. Class D
D. Class A
Correct Answer: B
Class B extinguishers are needed for flammable or combustible liquids\\’ fire such as gasoline, kerosene, grease, and
oil. The numerical rating for a class B extinguisher indicates the approximate area, in square feet, in which it can
extinguish fire. Carbon Dioxide extinguishers are used for class B and C fires. Answer option D is incorrect. Class A
extinguishers are needed for ordinary flammable materials\\’ fire such as paper, wood, cardboard, and most plastics.
Answer option A is incorrect. Class C fire extinguishers are needed for electrical fires. The electrical fire involves
electrical equipments, such as appliances, wiring, and circuit breakers. Water should not be used as an extinguisher for
this type of fire. Carbon Dioxide is a good choice as an extinguisher for an electrical fire on a computer or other
electronic device such as television. Answer option C is incorrect. Class D extinguishers are needed for combustible
metals\\’ fire such as magnesium, titanium, potassium, and sodium.


QUESTION 3
Which of the following ports can be used to connect an external hard drive to a computer? (Select TWO).
A. MIDI
B. PS/2
C. eSATA
D. RJ-45
E. USB
F. RJ-11
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 4
Which of the following interfaces is the current standard for digital LCD monitors?
A. DVE
B. SVGA
C. DVI
D. VGA
Correct Answer: C
DVI interface is the current standard for digital LCD monitors. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a standard for
high speed, high resolution digital display invented by Digital Display Working Group (DDWG). DVI accommodates
analog and digital interfaces with a single connector. New video cards have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them.
Most of LCD monitors come with a 15-pin VGA connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals
coming from DVI connections. However, some monitors come with both types of cables. DVI has three main categories
of connectors. They are: DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only connector, DVI-D is a digital-only connector,
and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I connectors are of two types: single link and dual link. DVI
supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set of links. Higher resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can
be supported with dual links. Answer options D and B are incorrect. VGA and SVGA are old standards for monitors. A
VGA or SVGA interface is a 15-pin, three rows, female connector, on the back of a PC used for connecting monitors.
Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such interface standard for digital LCD monitors as DVE. Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_Visual_Interface


QUESTION 5
Which of the following can a user configure on an operating system so that an audible sound is made when an error
message is displayed?
A. Encryption
B. Hot keys
C. Accessibility options
D. Screen captures
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Malware that has an embedded keylogger to capture all of the keystrokes and steal logins is considered:
A. adware
B. spyware
C. ransomware
D. phishing
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
After initial OS and application installation on a laptop, an application warns that it will only work 24 more times.
Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. The application has to be registered to the user.
B. The application must be upgraded to a 64-bit version.
C. The application must be activated.
D. The application needs to be reinstalled.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
A user is installing a new scanner on a computer.
Which of the following MOST likely needs to be installed in order for this equipment to work?
A. License key
B. OS update
C. Firmware
D. Driver
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements about Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) are true?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. It ensures that a computer and its components are compatible with the operating system before the operating system
is installed.
B. It contains the listing of all the hardware that operating systems vendors have tested with their operating systems.
C. It ensures that a computer and its components are working properly.
D. It contains the license to use operating systems.
Correct Answer: AB
The Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) contains the listing of all the hardware that operating systems vendors have
tested with their operating systems. Through HCL, an administrator can be sure that a computer and its components are
compatible with the operating system before the operating system is installed. HCL helps administrators to verify that
the CPU, RAM, storage devices, various interface cards, and other hardware components are supported by the
operating systems. Reference: “http://www.microsoft.com/whdc/hcl/default.mspx”


QUESTION 10
Which of the following firewalls inspects the actual contents of packets?
A. Packet filtering firewall
B. Application-level firewall
C. Circuit-level firewall
D. Stateful inspection firewall
Correct Answer: B
The application level firewall inspects the contents of packets, rather than the source/destination or connection between
the two. An Application level firewall operates at the application layer of the OSI model.
Answer option C is incorrect. The circuit-level firewall regulates traffic based on whether or not a trusted connection has
been established. It operates at the session layer of the OSI model.
Answer option A is incorrect. The packet filtering firewall filters traffic based on the headers. It operates at the network
layer of the OSI model. Answer option D is incorrect. The stateful inspection firewall assures the connection between
the
two parties is valid and inspects packets from this connection to assure the packets are not malicious.
Reference: “http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Firewall_(networking)#Third_generation_
_application_layer”


QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the MOST sensitive Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and should be shared cautiously
and only with trusted resources?
A. Email address
B. Phone number
C. Mother\\’s maiden name
D. Last name
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Your customer is using Windows Vista and complains about the quality of picture he is getting on his monitor. You find
that you cannot adjust the refresh rate or the resolution.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The video card is not recognized by Windows.
B. The monitor is not compatible with the video card.
C. The video card has failed.
D. The video card does not have enough video RAM.
Correct Answer: A
When Windows does not recognize the video card, it gives a set of simplified default settings for refresh rate, resolution,
etc.
Answer option B is incorrect. As long as the monitor can plug into the card, it is compatible. Answer option C is
incorrect. If the video card had failed, there would have been no picture at all on the monitor screen.
Answer option D is incorrect. Lack of sufficient video RAM would just prevent certain graphics from being displayed.
Reference: http://www.technibble.com/troubleshooting-video-cards-problems-and- solutions/


QUESTION 13
An attacker cracks a user\\’s password for all social media, email, and bank accounts. The user needs to change the
passwords for all these accounts.
Which of the following should the user do in the future to prevent this from happening?
A. Disable unused browser toolbars.
B. Clear the browser cache.
C. Avoid credential reuse.
D. Delete tracking cookies.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
Which of the following storage methods provides the HIGHEST redundancy and availability?
A. Cloud-based storage
B. Storage Area Network
C. Locally attached storage
D. Network Attached Storage
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
You work as a computer technician. When you start your computer, you find that the computer\\’s CMOS battery has
failed. You replace the CMOS battery.
What will be your next step after replacing the CMOS battery?
A. Run the DEFRAG utility.
B. Create a partition on the hard disk drive.
C. Run the SCANDISK utility.
D. Reboot the computer and set the date and time.
Correct Answer: D
When a computer\\’s CMOS battery is replaced, the system clock of the computer is reset. Therefore, your next step
after replacing the CMOS battery will be to reboot the computer and to set the date and time.
What is a CMOS battery? Hide
A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. It provides backup to
CMOS to store computer hardware configuration, date, and time settings when a computer\\’s main power is off. Note:
Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery. Answer option C is incorrect. SCANDISK
is a Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. It also
checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. This helps in improving the performance of a
computer.
Answer option A is incorrect. DEFRAG is a system utility used to consolidate the fragmented files stored on the hard
disk of a computer. The fragmented files are those files that are saved or stored in different locations of the hard disk.
The tool arranges such files and stores them on the hard disk in contiguous blocks. The operating system can access these
files at a faster rate than the fragmented ones. Answer option B is incorrect. Creating a partition on the hard disk drive
has nothing to do with the issue.
Reference: TechNet, Contents: “Chapter 21 – Troubleshooting Startup and Disk Problems”


QUESTION 16
Which of the following would BEST be described as password best practices? (Select THREE).
A. Use of long passwords
B. Sharing passwords with a trusted source
C. Limiting password reuse
D. Keeping default passwords
E. Use of special characters
F. Writing down difficult passwords
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the BEST reason to change a wireless router\\’s default SSID?
A. To make it easier to identify in a location with several routers.
B. To make the network feel more personal.
C. To make it more difficult to join.
D. To make the network secure.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
A user, Joe, is concerned about the safety of his personal information on a website.
Which of the following can Joe look for to ensure that his personal information is not at risk? (Select TWO).
A. HTTP on the browser address bar
B. Suspicious ads in the browser
C. HTTPS on the browser address bar
D. A lock symbol on the browser address bar
E. The word secure in the browser address bar
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 19
Several users want to share a common folder with high availability.
Which of the following devices is BEST to use for this requirement?
A. Large USB flash drive connected to a PC
B. Medium capacity SATA hard drive
C. Network attached storage appliance
D. Firewall with security management
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 20
A user wants to update a driver for additional features.
Where would the user find a current version of the driver from an official source?
A. Manufacturer\\’s CD/DVD that came with the computer
B. Manufacturer\\’s web site
C. Internet community support forums
D. Third-party support web sites
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
Which of the following types of attacks entices a user to disclose personal information such as social security number,
bank account details, or credit card number?
A. Password guessing attack
B. Spoofing
C. Phishing
D. Replay attack
Correct Answer: C
Phishing is a type of scam that entice a user to disclose personal information such as social security number, bank
account details, or credit card number. An example of phishing attack is a fraudulent e-mail that appears to come from a
user\\’s bank asking to change his online banking password. When the user clicks the link available on the e-mail, it
directs him to a phishing site which replicates the original bank site. The phishing site lures the user to provide his
personal information. Answer option B is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have
come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies
packet headers by using someone else\\’s IP address to his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing
the Internet, chatting on- line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected.
Answer option D is incorrect. Replay attack is a type of attack in which attackers capture packets containing passwords
or digital signatures whenever packets pass between two hosts on a network. In an attempt to obtain an authenticated
connection, the attackers then resend the captured packet to the system. Answer option A is incorrect. A password
guessing attack occurs when an unauthorized user tries to log on repeatedly to a computer or network by guessing
usernames and passwords. Many password guessing programs that attempt to break passwords are available on the
Internet. Following are the types of password guessing attacks: Brute force attack Dictionary attack Reference:
“http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing”


QUESTION 22
Which of the following functions can transfer a file between folders and deletes it from the original folder?
A. Edit
B. Move
C. Copy
D. Paste
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 23
Which of the following is the function of a CPU?
A. Encrypts data for remote transmission
B. Performs data computation
C. Supplies electricity to components
D. Provides storage location for files
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
Which of the following application types is MOST often used for doing a mail merge?
A. PDF software
B. Word processor
C. Presentation software
D. Personal information manager
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 25
Which of the following are considered input devices for a computer? (Select TWO).
A. Mouse
B. Printer
C. Speakers
D. Microphone
E. Monitor
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 26
Which of the following connectors supports both high definition video and audio?
A. S-video
B. Component
C. HDMI
D. DVI
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Which of the following are types of Random Access Memory (RAM) ? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. EDO RAM
B. DRAM
C. SRAM
D. VRAM
E. NRAM
Correct Answer: ABD
These are the type of Random Access Memory: DRAM EDO RAM SRAM VRAM What is the function of DRAM? Hide
Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is used as the primary memory for computers and workstations. It requires
having its storage cells refreshed or given a new electronic charge every few milliseconds. What is an EDO RAM? Hide
EDO RAM stands for Extended Data Out RAM. It is a type of memory, which improves performance of the computer by
eliminating memory wait states. What is the function of SRAM? Hide Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for
a computer\\’s cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card.
Unlike DRAM, SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power
is being supplied. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. What is VRAM? Hide VRAM, also
known as Video RAM, is used to store image data for processing by the video adapter. It is the memory that stores
information about the pictures that display on the monitor screen. Answer option E is incorrect. There is no RAM such
as NRAM.


QUESTION 28
Which of the following defines why backup verification is important?
A. To ensure that the backup runs as quickly as possible
B. To ensure that the backup can be stored indefinitely
C. To ensure that the backup can be saved to the cloud
D. To ensure that the backup contains usable data
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 29
Which of the following devices has a 15-pin 3 row connector?
A. Joystick port
B. VGA monitor
C. Parallel port
D. Serial port
Correct Answer: B
The VGA monitor uses a 15-pin 3 row connector to connect to a video adapter. Older Color Graphic
Array (CGA) video standard monitors use 9- pin connectors to connect to DB-9 female connectors on CGA adapters.
Answer option D is incorrect. Serial port is the primary means for connecting modems and mouse to a computer. There
are two types of serial port connectors, 9-pin and 25-pin. The word serial refers to the that data is sent in series, one bit
at
a time, over a single wire. This design is significantly slower than sending 8 bits at a time via a parallel channel, but
serial signals can travel much farther without degradation. Answer option A is incorrect. The joystick port has a 15-pin 2
row
male connector. Answer option C is incorrect. A parallel port is a 25-pin 2 row female connector on the back of a PC.
It is used to connect printers, scanners, etc. A parallel port transfers information between computers and peripheral
devices 8 bits at a time.
ECP, EPP, and SPP are types of parallel ports.


QUESTION 30
An employee is using a desk phone that is connected only via a network cable.
Which of the following technologies is the phone using?
A. LTE
B. GSM
C. VoIP
D. CDMA
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 31
Which of the following extension types are associated with document files? (Select THREE).
A. .txt
B. .odf
C. .msi
D. .rtf
E. .mp3
F. .tar
G. .jpg
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 32
Which of the following items require ESD precautions?
A. Upgrading to a new touch screen monitor
B. Adding a micro SD card to a smartphone
C. Installing an compact flash card into a laptop
D. Replacing RAM in a personal computer
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 33
Which of the following ports support hot swapping?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. USB
B. Parallel
C. Serial
D. IEEE 1394
Correct Answer: AD
USB and IEEE 1394 ports support hot swapping.
What is USB?
Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and
Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot
plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port
can be used to connect up to
127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data
transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480
Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1.
What is IEEE 1394?
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 is a standard for high-speed serial bus that provides
enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. These devices include consumer audiovisual components,
traditional PC
storage devices, and handheld devices. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. Answer options C and B are incorrect.
Serial and parallel ports do not support hot swapping or hot plugging.


QUESTION 34
Which of the following are removable storage devices/media?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. CD-ROM
B. SD card
C. Hard disk drive
D. USB Pen drive
Correct Answer: ABD
CD-ROM, SD card, USB Pen drive, floppy disk, etc., are removable storage media. CD-ROM (Compact Disc Read-Only
Memory) is a type of removable storage optical media. It can store up to 1GB of data, although most common CD-
ROMs store 700MB of data. It comes in a standard size and format, so users can load any type of CD-ROM into any CD
drive or CD-ROM player. Once data is written to a CD-ROM, it cannot be erased or changed. SD card is a removable
storage device. Secure Digital (SD) card is a non-volatile memory card format used in portable devices such as mobile
phones, digital cameras, and handheld computers. SD cards are based on the older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but
they are a little thicker than MMC cards. Generally an SD card offers a write-protect switch on its side. SD cards
generally measure 32 mm x 24 mm x 2.1 mm, but they can be as thin as 1.4 mm. The devices that have SD card slots
can use the thinner MMC cards, but the standard SD cards will not fit into the thinner MMC slots. Some SD cards are
also available with a USB connector. SD card readers allow SD cards to be accessed via many connectivity ports such
as USB, FireWire, and the common parallel port. USB Pen drive is a removable storage device. A pen drive is also
known as a USB flash drive. It is a small device used to transfer data from one computer to another through USB ports.
Pen drives are available in various capacities. When a pen drive is plugged into the USB port, Windows Explorer shows
it as a removable drive. Answer option C is incorrect. The hard disk drive is not a removable storage media. It is
installed inside the computer case. It can store large amounts of data and provides fast read/write performance. HDD
can be connected to a computer with the Integrated Device Electronics (IDE), Small Computer System Interface (SCSI),
and SATA interface. It consists of inflexible platters coated with material in which data is recorded magnetically with
read/write heads. Note: Only external hard disk drives are removable devices.


QUESTION 35
A laptop owner, Ann, can no longer see web pages when she opens her browser, and she can only see her search bars
and plug-ins. Which of the following is the MOST likely source of this issue?
A. The computer does not have current antivirus software installed
B. The computer needs to have its components upgraded
C. The downloaded toolbars are filling the browser screen
D. The owner was not using complex passwords
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 36
Which of the following is considered an optical storage medium?
A. SSD
B. Blu-Ray
C. Flash drive
D. Memory card
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 37
A user wants to run a major update on a laptop. Which of the following should be considered before running any major
updates?
A. Restore folders from back up
B. Change administrator account password
C. Back up important folders
D. Print all personal documents
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 38
A user is at the office and has a cellular phone that previously functioned properly. The phone is powered on with a fully
charged battery. However, the phone does not have connectivity.
Which of the following describes the problem?
A. Phone is disconnected from WiFi
B. Provider is conducting system testing
C. MAC address is bad
D. Phone is in airplane mode
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
Which of the following software package types is designed to accept input from multiple users?
A. Utility
B. Operating system
C. Specialized
D. Collaborative
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 40
You have an older Windows 98 computer. You wish to upgrade to Windows Vista Home Basic. What must you do?
A. First upgrade to Windows 2000 then upgrade to Vista Home Basic.
B. First upgrade to Windows XP Pro, then upgrade to Vista Home Basic.
C. Simply buy and install the Windows Vista Home Basic Upgrade.
D. First upgrade to Windows XP Home, then upgrade to Vista Home Basic.
Correct Answer: D
You will have to first upgrade to Windows XP home, and then to Vista Home. Answer option C is incorrect. Windows 98
cannot be directly upgraded to Windows Vista. Answer option B is incorrect. Windows XP professional cannot be
upgraded to Windows Vista Home Basic, but it can be upgraded to Windows Vista Business or Ultimate. Answer option
A is incorrect. Windows 2000 cannot be upgraded to Windows Vista. Reference:
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/931225

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