200-901 dumps to help you pass the DevNet Associate Core exam

200-901 exam

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Latest Cisco 200-901 dumps exam questions Free sharing

End of article detection answer

Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command-line driven interface

Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Question 5:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports "time exceeded in-transit". What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 7:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning-tree

D. IPv4 address

Question 8:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports "communication administratively prohibited". What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.

B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.

C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus dropping traffic.

D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.

Question 9:

What is an advantage of a version control system?

A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code

B. ensures that unit tests are written

C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files

D. forces the practice of trunk-based development

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Question 11:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Question 12:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements a desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for a desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for a desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Question 13:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\'s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Verify answer:

Number: Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10 Q11 Q12 Q13
Answers: C AC C A B D A A A D B B B

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How to obtain Citrix CCP-N 1Y0-341 certification?

Citrix CCP-N 1Y0-341 certification

Do you know the process of the Citrix exam? Citrix and other brand exam certifications are roughly the same, the Citrix certification exam is an incremental process. You need to go from basic to advance to expert step by step.
CCP-N 1Y0-341 belongs to the advanced level, so you need to pass the basic certification before participating in the advanced certification. So you need to take the Citrix CCA-N exam. To become CCA-N, you must pass one of the two exams. Exam 1Y0-230 or Exam 1Y0-240. As an expert, you need to take the CCE-N certification exam.

If you already have the Citrix CCA-N certification, then you should take the CCP-N exam. Here I will share the CCP-N 1Y0-341 exam practice. You can participate in the online exam test to improve your own strength.
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Participate in the Citrix 1Y0-341 exam practice test

The answer is announced at the end of the article, you can compare the answer at the end

Question 1:

A Citrix Engineer needs to set up access to an internal application for external partners.

Which two entities must the engineer configure on the Citrix ADC to support this? (Choose two.)

A. SAML Policy

B. SAMLldP Profile

C. SAMLldP Policy

D. SAML Action

 

Reference: https://www.citrix.com/blogs/2015/04/09/how-to-use-saml-authentication-with-storefront-2-6/


Question 2:

Which action ensures that content is retrieved from the server of origin?

A. CACHE

B. MAY_CACHE

C. NOCACHE

D. MAY_NOCACHE

 

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/optimization/integrated-caching/configure-cookies-headers-and-polling.html


Question 3:

Which license must be present on the Citrix ADC for the Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Service to generate HDX Insight reports that present one year\'s worth of data?

A. Advanced

B. Premium Plus

C. Premium

D. Standard

 


Question 4:

Which Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) feature can a Citrix Engineer use to narrow a list of Citrix ADC devices based on pre-defined criteria?

A. AutoScale Groups

B. Instance Groups

C. Configuration Template

D. Tags

E. Agent

 


Question 5:

Which protection can a Citrix Engineer implement to prevent a hacker from extracting a customer list from the company website?

A. Cross-Site Request Forgeries (CSRF)

B. Form Field Consistency

C. HTML Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

D. HTML SQL Injection

 


Question 6:

A Citrix Engineer is notified that no traffic is reaching the protected web application. While investigating, the

engineer notices that the Citrix Web App Firewall policy has 516,72 hits.

What should the engineer check next?

A. The security checks in the assigned profile

B. The HTML Error Object

C. The policy expression

D. The security checks in the global default profile

 


Question 7:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer configures Citrix Web App Firewall to protect an application. Users report that they are NOT able to log on. The engineer enables a Start URL relaxation for the path //login.aspx.

What is the effect of the Start URL relaxation on the application?

A. Access to the path /login.aspx is unblocked.

B. Access to the path /login.aspx is blocked.

C. External users are blocked from the path /login.aspx. Internal users are permitted to the path / login.aspx.

D. Non-administrative users are blocked from the path /login.aspx Administrative users are permitted to the path /login.aspx.

 


Question 8:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer wants to protect a web application using Citrix Web App Firewall. The engineer enables the Learn action for the Start URL, HTML, Cross-Site Scripting, and HTML SQL Injection protections. The engineer assigns this profile to a policy, which is then bound to the virtual server.

Which two items can the engineer check to determine that the Learn action is NOT capturing any rules? (Choose two.)

A. The HTML Error Object is configured for the profile.

B. Enough space is left on the /flash file system.

C. The aslearn process is running on the Citrix ADC appliance.

D. The Learn database is less than 20 MB.

 


Question 9:

A Citrix Engineer wants to delegate management of Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to a junior team member.

Which assigned role will limit the team member to view all application-related data?

A. readonly

B. appReadonly

C. admin

D. appAdmin

 

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-application-delivery-management-service/setting-up/configuring-role-based-access-control.html


Question 10:

Which Front End Optimization technique causes the Citrix ADC to resize images before sending them to the client?

A. Minify

B. Shrink to Attributes

C. Compression

D. Inlining

 

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/optimization/front-end-optimization.html


Question 11:

A Citrix Engineer wants the Citrix Web App Firewall to respond with a page stored on the Citrix ADC when a violation is detected.

Which profile setting accomplishes this?

A. Redirect URL

B. RFC Profile

C. Default Request

D. HTML Error Object

 

Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX140293


Question 12:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has a pair of Citrix ADC VPX appliances configured as a High- Availability (HA) pair and hosted on a Citrix Hypervisor. The engineer wants to use Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to monitor and manage the 35 web applications on the appliances. The engineer has imported Citrix ADM virtual appliance to Citrix Hypervisor. The engineer has also configured the management IP address settings and has added the 35 instances. However, some of the instances are NOT reporting any data.

Which two areas can the engineer check to determine the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. A Premium platform license must be configured on each instance.

B. AppFlow must be enabled on each instance.

C. The Citrix ADM license must be installed.

D. An SSL certificate must be installed on the Citrix ADM appliance.

 


Question 13:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer implements Application-level Quality of Experience (AppQoE) to protect a web application. Shortly after that, users call to complain that nearly every request is being met with a Captcha.

What can the engineer do to improve the user experience?

A. Disable the Captcha.

B. Increase the DOS Attack Threshold.

C. Increase the Policy Queue Depth.

D. Increase the Session Life.

 


Question 14:

What is required for connecting a data center to the Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Service?

A. Instance

B. Configuration Job

C. Agent

D. Syslog

 

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-application-delivery-management-service/citrix-applicationdelivery-management-service.html


Question 15:

In which order is a client request to a protected web application processed?

A. CitrixWebApp Firewall, Load Balancing, Caching, Rewrite

B. Caching, Citrix Web App Firewall, Load Balancing, Rewrite

C. Citrix Web App Firewall, Caching, Load Balancing, Rewrite

D. Load Balancing, Citrix Web App Firewall, Caching, Rewrite

Compare answers:

Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10 Q11 Q12 Q13 Q14 Q15
AB C C D D A A AC B B D CD B C C

Get more Citrix 1Y0-341 exam dumps: https://www.exam2pass.com/1y0-341.html (Total Questions: 107 Q&A)

Thank you for reading! At this point, I believe you should understand the advanced process of the Citrix CCP-N exam. Yes, most brand certifications are like this: basic-senior-expert, or assistant-professional-expert.
Passing the CCP-N exam is really not easy. You need a step-by-step exam to finally succeed. As I said in the description, you can improve yourself through study and practice, and get the complete Citrix 1Y0-341 exam questions to ensure your success!

The latest update Cisco 300-430 free dumps from Lead4Pass 300-430 dumps

cisco 2021 updated

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Cisco 300-430 free dumps online sharing, you can participate in the online test

The answer is obtained at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

A wireless engineer must implement a corporate wireless network for a large company in the most efficient way
possible. The wireless network must support 32 VLANs for 300 employees in different departments. Which solution
must the engineer choose?

A. Configure a second WLC to support half of the APs in the deployment.
B. Configure one single SSID and implement Cisco ISE for VLAN assignment according to different user roles.
C. Configure different AP groups to support different VLANs, so that all of the WLANs can be broadcast on both radios.
D. Configure 16 WLANs to be broadcast on the 2.4-GHz band and 16 WLANs to be broadcast on the 5.0- GHz band.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q1

 

QUESTION 2

After receiving an alert about a rogue AP, a network engineer logs into Cisco Prime Infrastructure and looks at the floor
map where the AP that detected the rogue is located. The map is synchronized with a mobility services engine that
determines that the rogue device is actually inside the campus. The engineer determines that the rogue is a security
threat and decides to stop if from broadcasting inside the enterprise wireless network. What is the fastest way to disable the rogue?

A. Go to the location where the rogue device is indicated to be and disable the power.
B. Create an SSID similar to the rogue to disable clients from connecting to it.
C. Update the status of the rogue in Cisco Prime Infrastructure to contained.
D. Classify the rogue as malicious in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.

 

QUESTION 3

An engineer is implementing profiling for BYOD devices using Cisco ISE. When using a distributed model, which
persona must the engineer configure with the profiling service?

A. Policy Services Node
B. Device Admin Node
C. Monitor Node
D. Primary Admin Node

 

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q4

An engineer deployed a Cisco WLC using local EAP. Users who are configured for EAP-PEAP cannot connect to the
network. Based on the local EAP debug controller provided, why is the client unable to connect?

A. The client is falling to accept certificate.
B. The Cisco WLC is configured for the incorrect date.
C. The user is using invalid credentials.

 

QUESTION 5

An engineer must track guest traffic flow using the WLAN infrastructure. Which Cisco CMX feature must be configured
and used to accomplish this tracking?

A. analytics
B. connect and engage
C. presence
D. detect and locate.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q5

 

QUESTION 6

Which two configurations are applied on the WLC to enable multicast, check multicast stream subscriptions, and stream content only to subscribed clients? (Choose two)

A. Enable IGMP snooping
B. Set the IGMP timeout to 180 seconds
C. Enable broadcast forwarding
D. Enable 802.3x flow control mode.
E. Set the AP multicast to 238.255.255.255

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/81671-multicast-wlc-lap.html

 

QUESTION 7

An engineer just added anew MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure and wants to synchronize the MSE with the Cisco 5520
WLC, which is located behind a firewall in a DMZ. It is noticed that NMSP messages are failing between the two
devices. Which traffic must be allowed on the firewall to ensure that the MSE and WLC can communicate using NMSP?

A. TCP 1613
B. UDP 16113
C. TCP 16113
D. UDP 1613

hnps:\\'/vvw\vxJsco.com\\'c/en;us\\'support;docsAvJreless\\'5500-series-wJreless-controllers/113344- cuwn-ppm html
https:\\'/mrncciewxom/2014/09/25/what-is-nmsp/ https:\\'/mvwxiscoxomx/en\\'us\\'support/docs\\'wireless\\'mo

 

QUESTION 8

The IT manager is asking the wireless team to get a report for all guest user associations during the past two weeks. In
which two formats can Cisco Prime save this report? (Choose two.)

A. CSV
B. PDF
C. XLS
D. DOC
E. plain text

cisco 300-430 exam questions q8

 

QUESTION 9

What is the default NMSP echo interval between Cisco MSE and a Wireless LAN Controller?

A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds

 

QUESTION 10

What must be configured on the Global Configuration page of the WLC for an access point to use 802.1x to authenticate to the wired infrastructure?

A. supplicant credentials
B. RADIUS shared secret
C. local access point credentials
D. TACACS server IP address.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q10

 

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-430 exam questions q11

A network administrator deploys the DHCP profiler service in two ISE servers: 10.3.10.101 and 10.3.10.102. All BYOD
devices connecting to WLAN on VLAN63 have been incorrectly profiled and are assigned as unknown profiled
endpoints. Which action efficiently rectifies the issue according to Cisco recommendations?

A. Nothing needed to be added on the Cisco WLC or VLAN interface. The ISE configuration must be fixed.
B. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC.
C. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC and run the ip helper-address command under the VLAN interface to point to
DHCP and the two ISE servers.
D. Keep DHCP proxy enabled on the Cisco WLC and define helper-address under the VLAN interface to point to the
two ISE servers.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/110865-dhcp-wlc.html

 

QUESTION 12

Which two steps are needed to complete integration of the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure and be able to track the location of clients/rogues on maps? (Choose two.)

A. Synchronize access points with the MSE.
B. Add the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure using the CLI credentials.
C. Add the MSE to Cisco Prime Infrastructure using the Cisco Prime Infrastructure communication credentials
configured during set up.
D. Apply a valid license for Wireless Intrusion Prevention System.
E. Apply a valid license for location tracking.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/prime/infrastructure/33/user/guide/bk_CiscoPrimeInfrastructure_3_3_0_UserGuide/bk_CiscoPrimeInfrastructure_3_3_0_UserGuide_chapter_0100110.html

 

QUESTION 13

An engineer has implemented advanced location services for a retail wireless deployment. The marketing department
wants to collect user demographic information in exchange for guest WLAN access and to have a customized portal per location hosted by the provider. Which social connector must be tied into Cisco CMX to provide this service?

A. Gmail
B. Google+
C. Facebook
D. MySpace

Verify answer:

Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10 Q11 Q12 Q13
B C A A C AC C AB B B C CE C

Free Cisco 300-430 exam PDF download online

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exam2pass shares the latest and effective 300-820 dumps to help pass the 300-820 exam: “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Cloud and Edge Solutions (CLCEI)“!
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Cisco 300-820 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Traversal Server
B. Advanced Networking
C. Device Provisioning
D. Rich Media Sessions
E. TURN Relays
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Core can use private CA signed certificate.
B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store.
C. Expressway must generate certificate signing request.
D. Expressway Edge must use public CA signed certificate.
E. The Jabber client can work with public or private CA signed certificate.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two outbound connections should an administrator configure on the internal firewall? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP: TCP 7400
B. SIP: TCP 7001
C. SIP TCP 5061
D. Media: UDP 36012 to 59999
E. HTTPS: TCP 8443
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X12-5/CiscoExpressway-IP-Port-Usage-for-Firewall-Traversal-Deployment-Guide-X12-5.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
Which configuration is required when implementing Mobile and Remote Access on Cisco Expressway?
A. IPS
B. SAML authentication
C. Cisco Unified CM publisher address
D. SSO
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.)
A. d20d16d20d22
B. 2091652010224
C. 209165200225
D. d209d165d200d224
E. 209165200224
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 6
When an Expressway-E is configured for static NAT, which Session Description Protocol attribute is modified to reflect
the NAT address?
A. SDP b-line
B. SIP record route
C. SDP c-line
D. SDP m-line
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which role does Call Policy play when preventing toll fraud on Expressways?
A. It controls which calls are allowed, which calls are rejected, and which calls are redirected to a different destination.
B. It changes the calling and called number on a call.
C. It changes the audio protocol used by a call through Expressways.
D. It changes the audio codec used in a call through Expressways.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
When designing the call control on a Cisco Expressway Core, which is the sequence of dial plan functions?
A. transforms, CPL, user policy, search rules
B. search rules, zones, local zones
C. DNS zone, local zone, search rules
D. search rules, transforms
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?
A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.
B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.
C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.
D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What is a key configuration requirement for Hybrid Message Service High Availability deployment with multiple IM and
Presence clusters?
A. You must have the Intercluster Sync Agent working across your IM and Presence clusters.
B. You must have the Intercluster Lookup Service working across all of your IM and Presence clusters.
C. Your IM and Presence Service clusters must have Multiple Device Messaging disabled.
D. AXL service should be activated only on the publisher of each IM and Presence cluster.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
How does an administrator configure an Expressway to make sure an external caller cannot reach a specific internal
address?
A. add the specific URI in the firewall section of the Expressway and block it
B. block the call with a call policy rule in the Expressway-E
C. add a search rule route all calls to the Cisco UCM
D. configure FAC for the destination alias on the Expressway
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages.
What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices?
A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space.
B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages.
C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path.
D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of a transform in the Expressway server?
A. A transform has the function as a neighbor zone in the Expressway. It creates a connection with another server.
B. A transform changes the audio codec when the call goes through the Expressway.
C. A transform is used to route calls to a destination.
D. A transform changes an alias that matches certain criteria into another alias.
Correct Answer: D

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Microsoft MS-600 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
You need to develop a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) solution that interacts with Microsoft SharePoint and Teams. The
solution must share the same code base. What should you include in the solution?
A. Include the Microsoft Authentication Library for .NET (MSALNET) in the solution.
B. Grant admin consent to the Teams API.
C. Make the code aware of the Teams context and the SharePoint context.
D. Publish the solution to an Azure App Service.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
You are developing a single-page application (SPA).
You plan to access user data from Microsoft Graph by using an AJAX call.
You need to obtain an access token by the Microsoft Authentication Library (MSAL). The solution must minimize
authentication prompts.
How should you complete the code segment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: loginPopup
Box 2: acquireTokenSilent
The pattern for acquiring tokens for APIs with MSAL.js is to first attempt a silent token request by using the
acquireTokenSilent method. When this method is called, the library first checks the cache in browser storage to see if a
valid token
exists and returns it. When no valid token is in the cache, it sends a silent token request to Azure Active Directory
(Azure AD) from a hidden iframe. This method also allows the library to renew tokens.
Box 3: acquireTokenPopup
//AcquireToken Failure, send an interactive request.
Example:
userAgentApplication.loginPopup(applicationConfig.graphScopes).then(function (idToken) { //Login Success
userAgentApplication.acquireTokenSilent(applicationConfig.graphScopes).then(function (accessToken) {
//AcquireToken Success
updateUI();
}, function (error) {
//AcquireToken Failure, send an interactive request.
userAgentApplication.acquireTokenPopup(applicationConfig.graphScopes).then(function (accessToken) {
updateUI();
}, function (error) {
console.log(error);
});
})
}, function (error) {
console.log(error);
});
Reference: https://github.com/AzureAD/microsoft-authentication-library-for-js/issues/339

 

QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You can use a Command Set extension to develop a breadcrumb element that will appear on every Microsoft
SharePoint page.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. an Application Customizer
C. a Field Customizer
D. a web part
Correct Answer: B
Application Customizers provide access to well-known locations on SharePoint pages that you can modify based on
your business and functional requirements. For example, you can create dynamic header and footer experiences that
render across all the pages in SharePoint Online.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/extensions/get-started/using-page-placeholder-withextensions

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You are developing an application that will upload files that are larger than 50 MB to Microsoft OneDrive.
You need to recommend an upload solution to ensure that the file upload process can resume if a network error occurs
during the upload.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the actions from the list of actions to the answer
area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 5
You have an application that has the code shown in the exhibits. (Click the JavaScript Version tab or the C# Version
tab.)
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
JavaScript Version

C# Version

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No
Box 2: No
Box 3: Yes
A file is downloaded from OneDrive and saved locally.
Drive/Root is the drive resource is the top level object representing a user\\’s OneDrive or a document library in
SharePoint.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/graph/api/resources/drive

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You are developing a sever-based application that has the following requirements:
Prompt the user to fill out a form that contains a keyword. Search the Microsoft OneDrive folder for files that contain the
keyword and return the results to the user.
Allow the user to select one of the files from the results. Copy the selected file to an Azure Blob storage container.
Which four actions should the application perform in sequence? To answer, move the actions from the list of actions to
the
answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 7
You have a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) 1.5 solution.
You need to ensure that the solution can be used as a tab in Microsoft Teams.
What should you do first?
A. Convert the solution to use the Bot Framework
B. Deploy the solution to a developer site collection
C. Deploy the solution to the Microsoft AppSource store
D. Upgrade the solution to the latest version of SPFx
Correct Answer: D
Starting with the SharePoint Framework v1.8, you can implement your Microsoft Teams tabs using SharePoint
Framework. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/web-parts/get-started/using-web-part-asms-teams-tab

 

QUESTION 8
You have a custom Microsoft Word add-in that was written by using Microsoft Visual Studio Code.
A user reports that there is an issue with the add-in.
You need to debug the add-in for Word Online.
What should you do before you begin debugging in Visual Studio Code?
A. Disable script debugging in your web browser
B. Sideload the add-in
C. Publish the manifest to the Microsoft SharePoint app catalog
D. Add the manifest path to the trusted catalogs
Correct Answer: C
Debug your add-in from Excel or Word on the web
To debug your add-in by using Office on the web (see step 3):
9. Deploy your add-in to a server that supports SSL.
10.In your add-in manifest file, update the SourceLocation element value to include an absolute, rather than a relative,
URI.
11.Upload the manifest to the Office Add-ins library in the app catalog on SharePoint.
12.Launch Excel or Word on the web from the app launcher in Office 365, and open a new document.
13.On the Insert tab, choose My Add-ins or Office Add-ins to insert your add-in and test it in the app.
14.Use your favorite browser tool debugger to debug your add-in.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office/dev/add-ins/testing/debug-add-ins-in-office-online

QUESTION 9
You are developing a Microsoft Office Add-in for Microsoft Word. Which Office Ul element can contain commands from
the add-in?
A. dialog boxes
B. the Quick Access Toolbar (QAT)
C. context menus
D. task panes
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
You need to develop a server-based web app that will be registered with the Microsoft identity platform. The solution
must ensure that the app can perform operations on behalf of the user. Which type of authorization flow should you
use?
A. authorization code
B. refresh token
C. resource owner password
D. device code
Correct Answer: A
In web server apps, the sign-in authentication flow takes these high-level steps: You can ensure the user\\’s identity by
validating the ID token with a public signing key that is received from the Microsoft identity platform endpoint. A session
cookie is set, which can be used to identify the user on subsequent page requests.

In addition to simple sign-in, a web server app might need to access another web service, such as a REST API. In this
case, the web server app engages in a combined OpenID Connect and OAuth 2.0 flow, by using the OAuth 2.0
authorization code flow. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/v2-app-types

 

QUESTION 11
You company has a third-party invoicing web app.
You need to display the app within Microsoft Teams for one user only. The app will not require conversational
interactions.
How should you display the app by using the minimum amount of effort?
A. Instruct the user to add a website tab
B. Instruct the user to add an App Studio app
C. Create a SharePoint Framework (SPFx) web part
D. Create a search-based messaging extension
Correct Answer: A
There are currently three methods of app integration in Teams: Connectors, Bots, and Tabs. Tabs offer more extensive
integration by allowing you to view entire third-party services within Microsoft Teams. Reference:
https://www.sherweb.com/blog/office-365/o365-microsoft-teams-apps/

 

QUESTION 12
You need to retrieve a list of the last 10 files that the current user opened from Microsoft OneDrive. The response must
contain only the file ID and the file name.
Which URI should you use to retrieve the results? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

“graph.microsoft.com” “drive” onedrive
Box 1: root
/root – The root folder for the drive.
Box 2: $select=id,name
To specify a different set of properties to return than the default set provided by the Graph, use the $select query option.
The $select option allows for choosing a subset or superset of the default set returned. For example, when retrieving
your messages, you might want to select that only the from and subject properties of messages are returned.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/onedrive/developer/rest-api/concepts/addressing-driveitems
https://developer.microsoft.com/en-us/graph/docs/overview/query_parameters

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Cisco 300-810 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two methods does Cisco Jabber use for contact searching in an on-premises deployment model? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. XMPP
C. UDS
D. LDAP
E. SIP
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/presence.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which function of the Cisco IM and Presence high availability solution is true?
A. When the server has been restored to a normal state, user sessions remain on the backup server.
B. When an event takes place, the end user sessions are not moved from the failed server to the backup.
C. When the server has been restored, the server automatically fails back.
D. When a high availability event takes place, the end user sessions are moved from the failed server to the backup.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-im-presenceservice/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which service must be activated on Cisco Unity Connection to utilize LDAP synchronization?
A. Cisco Tomcat
B. Cisco Sync Agent
C. Cisco DirSync
D. Cisco RIS Data Collector
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/10x/administration/guide/10xcucsagx/10xcucsag120.html

 

QUESTION 4
Which component of SAML SSO defines the transport mechanism that is used to deliver the SAML messages between
entities?
A. profiles
B. metadata
C. assertions
D. bindings
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which SAML 2.0 profile is supported by Cisco UCM, Cisco Unified IM and Presence, and Unity Connection version 10.x
and above?
A. single logout
B. web browser SSO
C. name identifier management
D. identity provider discovery
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q6

Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in
the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is
configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this
issue?
A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Feature Services.
C. Restart XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Network Services.
D. Activate XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsol-chat-00.html

 

QUESTION 7
What are two Cisco Jabber 12.6 on-premises deployment types that can be run on a Windows- enabled PC? (Choose
two.)
A. Contact Center Agent
B. IM-only
C. multicloud-based
D. Full UC
E. cloud-based
Correct Answer: BD
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/12_6/cjab_b_on-prem-deployment-ciscojabber_12-6.pdf

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q8

Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to
Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in
the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in?
A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp.
B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM.
C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong.
D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/ta-p/3143446

 

QUESTION 9
Which two protocols does the Cisco IM Presence service use to federate with external domains? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP
B. SNMP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
E. SMPP
Correct Answer: AC
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/interdomain_federation/11_5_1/cup0_b_interdomain-federation-guide-imp-115.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.cisco 300-810 questions q10

Which statement is true?
A. If the IMandP node in sub-cluster-1 goes down, then users assigned to it are randomly split between the two
remaining subclusters.
B. The administrator must add one node to each subcluster for high availability.
C. IMandP nodes in each subscluster must be configured from the same OVA template.
D. Each Cisco IMandP subcluster must have the same number of nodes.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring DNS for service discovery in a Jabber deployment for on-premises clients. Which snippet will
complete the SRV record name _tcp.example.com?
A. _cisco_uds
B. _collab_edge
C. _xmpp.server
D. _xmpp-client
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2016/pdf/BRKCOL-2344.pdf

 

QUESTION 12
Which SAML component specifies the mapping of SAML assertion protocol message exchanges with standard
messaging formats or communication protocols such as SOAP exchanges?
A. SAML binding
B. SAML assertion
C. SAML profiles
D. SAML protocol
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_Assertion_Markup_Language

 

QUESTION 13
SAML SSO is enabled in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What happens when a browser- based client
attempts to access a protected resource on a service provider?
A. The browser follows the redirect and issues an HTTPS GET request to the IdP.
B. The IdP checks for a valid browser session.
C. The service provider generates a SAML authentication request.
D. The SAML request is maintained as a query parameter in the GET request.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/SAML_SSO_deployment_guide/12_5_1/cucm_b_samlsso-deployment-guide-12_5/cucm_b_saml-sso-deployment-guide-12_5_chapter_01.html


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