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Latest effective Citrix CCP-N 1Y0-340 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure an Application Firewall policy for an online shopping website called “mycompany.com”. As a security measure, the shopping cart application is hosted on a separate directory “/mycart” on the backend server. The engineer configured a profile to secure the connections to this shopping cart and now needs to ensure that this profile is allied to all incoming connections to the shopping cart. Which policy expression will accomplish this requirement? A. http.req.url. contains(“/mycart”) and http:req.url.hostname.eq(“mycompany.com”) B. http.req.url. contains(“/mycart”) || http:req.url.hostname.eq(“mycompany.com”) C. http.req.header (“url”).contains (“/mycart”) || http.req.url.contains (“mycompany.com”) D. http.req.header (“url”).contains (“/mycart”) andand http:req.url.contains (“mycompy.com”) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A Citrix Engineer needs to optimize the Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) content sent from the backend server before being forwarded to the client. Which option can the engineer use to accomplish CSS optimization? A. Move to Head Tag B. Shrink to Attributes C. Lazy Load D. Convert to WebP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure Application Firewall to handle SQL injection issues. However, after enabling SQL injection check, the backend server started dropping user requests. The Application Firewall configuration is as follows: add appfw profile Test123 –startURLAction none- denyURLAction nonecrossSiteScriptingAction none –SQLInjectionAction log stats- SQLInjection TransformSpecialChars ON –SQLInjectionCheckSQLWildChars ON- fieldFormatAction none bufferOverflowAction none- responseContentType “application/octet-stream”–XMLSQLInjectionAction none- XMLXSSAction none-XMLWSIAction none-XMLValidationAction none What does the engineer need to change in the Application Firewall configuration? A. Enable-XMLSQLInjectionAction none B. Enable-XMLValidationAction none C. Disable- SQLInjectionCheckSQLWildChars ON D. Disable- SQLInjectionTransformSpecialChars ON Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which reason can cause fail over in a NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) High Availability pair? A. A secondary server loses connectivity in the LAN. B. The engineer manually forces the secondary server to shut down. C. A primary server encounters a critical software issue. D. A primary server does NOT receive the SNMP traps from the instances connected. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A website hosts highly dynamic content that is frequently requested in bursts of high user access. Which configuration will reduce traffic to the origin server while optimizing client performance? A. –pollEveryTime NO B. –expireAtLastByte YES C. –flashCache YES D. –heurExpiryParam 0 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A Citrix Engineer is considered that malicious users could exploit a web system by sending a large cookie. Which security check can the engineer implement to address this concern? A. Field Formats B. Content-type C. Buffer Overflow D. Start URL Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which mechanism does the NetScaler use to enable a safe and speedy data exchange between a client/server initial TCP handshake? A. TCP Fast Open (TFO) B. TCP Burst Rate Control C. TCP Hystart D. TCP Time Stamp Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 A Citrix Engineer configures the integrated caching feature to cache both static and dynamic content, but the integrated cache feature does NOT work as expected. Which two resources can the engineer use to troubleshoot this integrated cache issue? (Choose two.) A. core dump B. dmesg C. nstrace D. ns.conf E. sysctl-a Correct Answer: CD Reference https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler/11/optimization/integrated- caching/troubleshooting-integrated- caching.html
QUESTION 9 Which requirement must be addressed to implement the IP Reputation feature on a NetScaler MPX appliance? A. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to api.bcti.brightcloud.com on port 443. B. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to wiprep-rtu.s3-us-west- 2.amazonaws.com on port 80. C. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to api.bcss.brightcloud.com on port 80. D. The NetScaler appliance must be able to connect to wiprep-rtu.s3-us-west- 2.amazonaws.com on port 443. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which content type takes the maximum advantage of web caching mechanisms to boost performance? A. Pseudo-Dynamic Content B. Pseudo-Static Content C. Static Content D. Dynamic Content Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 A Citrix Engineer needs to configure an application firewall profile to ensure that the images uploaded on the website are NOT malicious. The engineer needs to create a policy to filter the upload requests and ensure that they are in JPEG format. Which expression can the engineer use to fulfill this requirement? A. http.req.url.endswith (“.jpeg) and and http.req.method.eq (POST) B. http.req.url.contains (“.jpeg) and and http.req.method.eq (GET) C. http.req.url.endswith (“.jpeg) || http.req.method.eq (GET) D. http.req.header (“Content-Type”).contains (“image/jpeg”) || http.req.method.eq(POST) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 A Citrix Engineer needs to ensure that all traffic to the virtual server is blocked if NONE of the bound Application Firewall policies are matched. Which setting can the engineer configure to meet this requirement? A. set appfw settings –undefAction APPFW_BLOCK B. set ns httpProfile nshttp_default_profile-dropInvalReqs DISABLED C. set ns httpProfie nshttp_default_profile –dropInvalReqs ENABLED D. set appfw settings –defaultProfile APPFW_BLOCK Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure the Application Firewall to do a credit card check using the command-line interface (CLI) and configure the profile to obscure the credit card number. Which parameter will the engineer add in the CLI to encrypt the credit card numbers in the logs? A. -creditCardAction BLOCK B. -creditCardMaxAllowed C. -creditCardXOut ON D. -doSecureCreditCardLogging ON Correct Answer: D
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Candidates for this exam have fundamental knowledge of Windows devices and mobility. Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows devices, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, antimalware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.
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Latest effective Citrix CCP-V 1Y0-311 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is managing a Provisioning Services Farm with the following specifications: – A single Farm with one Site, with two Provisioning Services servers deployed with 8 vCPU each, which are supporting a total of 500 target devices in production. -The ports and threads have been configured so that each server can stream concurrently to 250 devices each. -Due to an upcoming merger, 250 more target devices must be supported by the existing Provisioning Services farm. -The Provisioning Services servers must handle the extra capacity while aligning to Citrix leading practices for resiliency. Which step should the engineer perform to accomplish these requirements? A. Isolate the Provisioning Services screaming traffic. B. Add two additional Provisioning Services servers to the Site. C. Maintain the existing configurations for the environment. D. Add one additional Provisioning Services server to the Site. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which three benefits can a Citrix Engineer achieve using the robocpy command to replicate vDisk files between storage locations? (Choose three.) A. It tolerates network disruptions during file transfer and continues copying after network is restored. B. It is able to replicate files to multiple concurrent Stores using a “hub and spoke” model. C. It preserves vDisk file time stamps. D. It can be included in a script to automate replication at scheduled times. E. It can be configured to use a limited amount of bandwidth for each file copy. Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 3 What is the default auto-launch behavior for published applications and desktops within a XenApp and XenDesktop environment? A. If a single application is published to the user, it will launch automatically. B. No published applications or desktops launch automatically. C. If a single desktop is published to the user, it will launch automatically. D. All published applications launch automatically. E. All published desktops launch automatically. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A Citric Engineer is checking the IOPS on the local vDisk Store after setting up and configuring the environment. Which two tools can the engineer use to check the IOPS for the Store? (Choose two.) A. Performance Monitor B. Process Monitor C. Process Explorer D. Disk Management Correct Answer: AB Referencehttp://www.basvankaam.com/2014/07/29/the-ultimate-iops-cheat-sheet/
QUESTION 5 Scenario: An administrator has enabled a Citrix policy called HDX Policy that enables extra compression for moving and still images for user connections greater than 400 Kbps. Branch Repeater VPX is then deployed to all remote offices; however, users report NO appreciable benefits. Which change should be made to HDX Policy? A. Session Reliability should be disabled. B. The Branch Repeater filter should be invoked. C. Overall session bandwidth should be added to the policy. D. The threshold value should be increased by 100-200 Kbps. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Scenario: Currently users log in to their desktop and are prompted several times for credentials while accessing XenApp published applications. The XenApp Administrator is asked to configure pass-through authentication to ensure that users only log in to their desktop and will NOT get prompted anymore. Which three components will need to be configured when setting up pass-through authentication? (Choose three.) A. Web Interface. B. ICAClient.ADM. C. Citrix Receiver. D. XenApp Servers. E. Citrix User policy. F. Citrix Single sign-on. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 7 Users complain that it is taking longer to access applications now than it did last week. What is the best way to determine what changed from last week to this week? A. Review Configuration Logging data. B. ReviewEdgeSight troubleshooting data. C. Review EdgeSight Active Application Monitoring data. D. Review published application properties from a previous version of the datastore with the current version. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Scenario: All users connect from thin clients to a XenApp hosted desktop. Recently, the Order Entry team has been printing all documents in color. A session printers policy has been created and applied to this user group. How can the XenApp Administrator ensure that these printers default to a setting of monochrome? A. Modify the Printer Properties Retention Policy. B. Change the universal driver preference policy to default to PCL4. C. Modify the existing session printing policy with the required printer settings. D. Adjust the Citrix Universal Printer default settings in the registry of the XenApp servers. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 What happens when no free RAM is available with the `Cache in device RAM with overflow on hard disk\\’ write cache option? A. New writes are moved to the overflow disk on the target device. B. Older writes are moved to the overflow disk on the target device. C. New writes are moved to the overflow on the Provisioning Services server. D. Older writes are moved to the overflow disk on the Provisioning Services server. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which update requires a Citrix Engineer to reverse image a vDisk? A. Target device software B. Hypervisor tools C. Anti-virus software D. OS service pack Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which three actions are necessary when using the versioning vDisk update process? (Choose three.) A. Perform updates using a single target device. B. Make a full copy of the vDisk. C. Put the vDisk into Private mode. D. Create a maintenance version of the vDisk E. Promote the changes to production. F. Update the properties of the production target devices to use the updated vDisk. Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 12 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is designing a Provisioning Services environment based on the following environmental factors: -A large number of target devices are spread over multiple subnets. -The subnets include non-Provisioning Services machines that rely on booting over the network -A security mandate prohibits the use of TFTP. -The XenDesktop Setup Wizard is used to create the target devices. Which Provisioning Services boot method is appropriate for the target devices? A. BDM Disk Partition B. BIOS Embedded C. DHCP Options D. BDM ISO Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 What is the default priority order for selecting the preferred zone in a multi-zone XenApp and XenDesktop environment? A. User Location; Application Home; User Home B. User Home; Application Home; User Location C. Application Home, User Home; User Location D. User Location; User Home; Application Home E. Application Home; User Location; User Home Correct Answer: C
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Candidates for this exam have fundamental knowledge of Windows devices and mobility. Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows devices, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, antimalware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.
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Latest effective Microsoft MTA 98-368 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 What is an example of the way in which a Trojan horse commonly spreads to other computers? A. It inserts copies of itself into other computer programs B. It traverses a network by exploiting a vulnerability C. It pretends to be a document from a friend D. It downloads from an infected web page Correct Answer: D Trojan horses are commonly found on websites that offer free software, such as shareware programs. These communal gathering spots on the Web give Trojan horse writers a degree of anonymity along with the chance of attacking as many random victims as possible. Since website operators rarely have time to thoroughly examine every file posted, an occasional Trojan horse can slip through the checking procedures unnoticed. Reference: HOW TROJAN HORSES SPREAD http://etutorials.org/Misc/computer+book/Part+2+Dangerous+Threats+on+the+Internet/Chapter+8+Trojan +Horses-+Beware+of+Geeks+Bearing+Gifts/HOW+TROJAN+HORSES+SPREAD/
QUESTION 2 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. The “Simple Spaces” resiliency type in Windows 8.1 Storage Spaces requires at least five drives in order to protect a system from a single-drive failure. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. two-way mirror C. Parity Spaces D. three-way mirror Correct Answer: D Two-way mirror spaces require at least two drives, and three-way mirror spaces require at least five. Mirror spaces are designed for increased performance and protect your files from drive failure by keeping more than one copy. Two-way mirror spaces make two copies of your files and can tolerate one drive failure, while three-way mirror spaces can tolerate two drive failures. Reference: Storage Spaces: FAQ http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-8/storage-spaces-pools
QUESTION 3 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Microsoft Azure storage solutions replicates “four” copies of your data within a single region. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. two C. three D. six Correct Answer: C Geo-redundant storage (GRS). Geo-redundant storage is enabled for your storage account by default when you create it. GRS maintains six copies of your data. With GRS, your data is replicated three times within the primary region, and is also replicated three times in a secondary region hundreds of miles away from the primary region, providing the highest level of durability. Reference: Introduction to Microsoft Azure Storage https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/storage- introduction/
QUESTION 4 Which Microsoft Intune Company Portal App platform requires IT deployment? A. Android B. Windows Phone 8.1 C. iOS D. Windows RT Correct Answer: B Windows Intune Company Portal for Windows Phone 8/8.1 requires IT deployment Incorrect answers: Not A: Android requires Direct User Installation. Not C: iOS requires Direct User Installation. Not D: Windows 8.x (x86/x64 and RT) supports both IT deployment and Direct User Installation. Reference: Windows Intune Company Portals for iOS and Android Now Available http://blogs.technet.com/b/windowsintune/archive/2013/11/25/windows-intune-company-portals-for-ios- and-android- now-available.aspx
QUESTION 5 Which type of information about users does biometrics evaluate? A. phrases a user has memorized B. where a user is located C. physical characteristics of a user D. objects a user carries with him or her Correct Answer: C Biometrics refers to authentication techniques that rely on measurable physical characteristics that can be automatically checked. Note: There are several types of biometric identification schemes: face: the analysis of facial characteristics fingerprint: the analysis of an individual\\’s unique fingerprints hand geometry: the analysis of the shape of the hand and the length of the fingers retina: the analysis of the capillary vessels located at the back of the eye iris: the analysis of the colored ring that surrounds the eye\\’s pupil signature: the analysis of the way a person signs his name. vein: the analysis of pattern of veins in the back if the hand and the wrist voice: the analysis of the tone, pitch, cadence and frequency of a person\\’s voice. Reference: http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/B/biometrics.html
QUESTION 6 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. When BitLocker is enabled and and protecting a local drive, Trusted Platform Module (TPM) provides “pre- start system integrity verification for system and operating system drives”. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. 256-bit encryption that uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) C. a location that stores recovery keys for removable drives D. boot sector mapping for the startup process Correct Answer: C Computers that incorporate a TPM have the ability to create cryptographic keys and encrypt them so that they can be decrypted only by the TPM. This process, often called “wrapping” or “binding” a key, can help protect the key from disclosure. Each TPM has a root “wrapping” key, called the Storage Root Key (SRK), which is stored within the TPM itself. The private portion of a key created in a TPM is never exposed to any other component, software, process, or person. Reference: Windows Trusted Platform Module Management Step-by-Step Guide https://technet.microsoft.com/en- us/library/cc749022%28v=ws.10%29.aspx
QUESTION 7 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. You have a Windows 8.1 computer in a WorkGroup. To share the C:\Work folder and make it available to offline users, you need to use the “public” share option. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. advanced C. HomeGroup D. basic Correct Answer: B In the advanced sharing dialog box Click on “Caching” button. In “Offline settings” dialog box, you can set up caching for files and programs which are offline.You have the following options: i) Only the files and programs that users specify are available offline: If you select this option then, users specify the files and programs which can be accessed offline. It is the default option. ii) No files or programs from the share are available offline: If you select this option then, caching will be turned off. iii) All files and programs that users open from the share are automatically available offline: If you select this option then, caching is turned on for all files and programs and they can be accessed offline. Check option “Optimize for performance”. Reference: How to set advanced sharing options, custom permissions, caching for folder in Windows 7? http://www.moreprocess.com/operating-systems/windows-7/how-to-set-advanced-sharing-options-custom- permissions- caching-forfolder-in-windows-7
QUESTION 8 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. “The Windows Store” allows users of Windows 8 and Windows 8.1 computers to view and install applications that the users\\’ administrators make available to them. The computers must be attached to the domain, and the user must be logged in with domain credentials. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. Microsoft SharePoint C. The Microsoft Intune Company Portal App D. The System Center Configuration Manager Company Portal App Correct Answer: D The System Center Configuration Manager Company Portal app allows users of Windows 8, Windows 8.1 and Windows 10 machines to view and install applications made available to the user by their administrators. The machine must be managed by Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager, or later, with the agent installed. End User Machines requirements: * Windows 8 Pro, Windows 8 Enterprise, Windows 8.1 Pro, Windows 8.1 Enterprise, Windows 10 Pro or Windows 10 Enterprise * Machine must be domain-joined * User must be logged on with domain credentials * System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager (or later) client agent must be installed Reference: System Center Configuration Manager Company Portal App https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/download/details.aspx?id=40795
QUESTION 9 You manage 200 desktop computers at your school\\’s main computer lab. A critical update was released. You need to determine if the update was installed on one of the computers in the lab. What should you do? A. View the Event Viewer Security log B. Check System Status in Control Panel C. View Windows update history D. Go to the System Action Center Correct Answer: C Follow these steps to see which Windows updates are installed on your computer. 1. Open Windows Update by clicking the Start button Picture of the Start button. In the search box, type Update, and then, in the list of results, click Windows Update. 2. In the left pane, click View update history. Reference: See which Windows updates are installed http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/which-windows- updates-installed#1TC=windows-7
QUESTION 10 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. If you need to make storage space available for an update on a Windows Phone 8.1 device, you should use “Action Center” to move installed programs to and other data from the phone to the SD card. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. File Explorer C. Phone Update D. Storage Sense Correct Answer: D To uninstall apps and games or move them to an SD card using Storage Sense You can uninstall apps and games to free up space on your phone, or move them to an SD card (if you have one installed). 1. In the App list, go to Storage Sense Storage Sense Tile. 2. Go to Phone > Apps+games. 3. Tap an app or game file, and then tap Uninstall or Move to SD. Reference: Make room on my phone to update it https://www.windowsphone.com/en-us/how-to/wp8/basics/make-room- on-my-phone-to-update-it
QUESTION 11 Which is a feature Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)? A. manages Digital Rights Media (DRM) for digital media B. provides a permissions system that works with any cloud-based storage solution C. manages share and file permissions on all servers in enterprise D. allow users to define who can open, modify, print, or forward a document Correct Answer: D Windows Rights Management Services (also called Rights Management Services, Active Directory Rights Management Services or RMS) is a form of Information Rights Management used on Microsoft Windows that uses encryption and a form of selective functionality denial for limiting access to documents such as corporate e-mail, Word documents, and web pages, and the operations authorized users can perform on them. Companies can use this technology to encrypt information stored in such document formats, and through policies embedded in the documents, prevent the protected content from being decrypted except by specified people or groups, in certain environments, under certain conditions, and for certain periods of time. Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Active_Directory_Rights_Management_Services
QUESTION 12 Your new Windows 8.1 computer is connected to your home wireless network. You want to share music and photos on your new computer with other members of your family. You want to avoid setting up separate user accounts for each member of your family. A single password for all the shared files will suffice. Which Windows 8.1 networking feature satisfies these requirements? A. Network Discovery B. HomeGroup C. Virtual Private Network D. Broadband (PPPoE) Correct Answer: B A homegroup makes it easier to share files and printers on a home network. You can share pictures, music, videos, documents, and printers with other people in your homegroup. Other people can\\’t change the files that you share, unless you give them permission to do so. Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/what-is-a-homegroup
QUESTION 13 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. In order to install Microsoft Intune client software on a computer, you need to be a member of that computer\\’s “Administrators” group. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. Remote Management users C. Power users D. Remote Desktop users Correct Answer: A The account that installs the Intune client software must have local administrator permissions to that computer. Reference: Requirements for Microsoft Intune https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn646950.aspx
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Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam are familiar with the concepts and the technologies of Windows Server administration. Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, account management, and system recovery tools and concepts.
Candidates for this exam have fundamental knowledge of Windows devices and mobility. Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows devices, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, antimalware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.
Share real and effective CompTIA IT Fundamentals fc0-u51 exam dumps for free. 40 Online fc0-u51 Exam Practice test questions and answers, online fc0-u51 pdf download and YouTube video learning, easy to learn! Get the full fc0-u51 Dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/fc0-u51.html (Total Questions: 286 Q&A) to make it easy to pass the exam!
The CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam covers foundational IT concepts including identifying and explaining computer components, installing software,establishing network connectivity and preventing security risks.
Latest effective CompTIA IT Fundamentals fc0-u51 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 A user needs to download tax documents from a financial website. Which of the following is the website MOST likely to use for transmission of the tax document to the user\\’s browser? A. HTTP B. HTTPS C. SFTP D. FTP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which of the following types of fire extinguishers are needed for combustible liquids\\’ fire such as gasoline and kerosene? A. Class C B. Class B C. Class D D. Class A Correct Answer: B Class B extinguishers are needed for flammable or combustible liquids\\’ fire such as gasoline, kerosene, grease, and oil. The numerical rating for a class B extinguisher indicates the approximate area, in square feet, in which it can extinguish fire. Carbon Dioxide extinguishers are used for class B and C fires. Answer option D is incorrect. Class A extinguishers are needed for ordinary flammable materials\\’ fire such as paper, wood, cardboard, and most plastics. Answer option A is incorrect. Class C fire extinguishers are needed for electrical fires. The electrical fire involves electrical equipments, such as appliances, wiring, and circuit breakers. Water should not be used as an extinguisher for this type of fire. Carbon Dioxide is a good choice as an extinguisher for an electrical fire on a computer or other electronic device such as television. Answer option C is incorrect. Class D extinguishers are needed for combustible metals\\’ fire such as magnesium, titanium, potassium, and sodium.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following ports can be used to connect an external hard drive to a computer? (Select TWO). A. MIDI B. PS/2 C. eSATA D. RJ-45 E. USB F. RJ-11 Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4 Which of the following interfaces is the current standard for digital LCD monitors? A. DVE B. SVGA C. DVI D. VGA Correct Answer: C DVI interface is the current standard for digital LCD monitors. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a standard for high speed, high resolution digital display invented by Digital Display Working Group (DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces with a single connector. New video cards have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD monitors come with a 15-pin VGA connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals coming from DVI connections. However, some monitors come with both types of cables. DVI has three main categories of connectors. They are: DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only connector, DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I connectors are of two types: single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set of links. Higher resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual links. Answer options D and B are incorrect. VGA and SVGA are old standards for monitors. A VGA or SVGA interface is a 15-pin, three rows, female connector, on the back of a PC used for connecting monitors. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such interface standard for digital LCD monitors as DVE. Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_Visual_Interface
QUESTION 5 Which of the following can a user configure on an operating system so that an audible sound is made when an error message is displayed? A. Encryption B. Hot keys C. Accessibility options D. Screen captures Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Malware that has an embedded keylogger to capture all of the keystrokes and steal logins is considered: A. adware B. spyware C. ransomware D. phishing Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 After initial OS and application installation on a laptop, an application warns that it will only work 24 more times. Which of the following should be done NEXT? A. The application has to be registered to the user. B. The application must be upgraded to a 64-bit version. C. The application must be activated. D. The application needs to be reinstalled. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 A user is installing a new scanner on a computer. Which of the following MOST likely needs to be installed in order for this equipment to work? A. License key B. OS update C. Firmware D. Driver Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which of the following statements about Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) are true? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. It ensures that a computer and its components are compatible with the operating system before the operating system is installed. B. It contains the listing of all the hardware that operating systems vendors have tested with their operating systems. C. It ensures that a computer and its components are working properly. D. It contains the license to use operating systems. Correct Answer: AB The Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) contains the listing of all the hardware that operating systems vendors have tested with their operating systems. Through HCL, an administrator can be sure that a computer and its components are compatible with the operating system before the operating system is installed. HCL helps administrators to verify that the CPU, RAM, storage devices, various interface cards, and other hardware components are supported by the operating systems. Reference: “http://www.microsoft.com/whdc/hcl/default.mspx”
QUESTION 10 Which of the following firewalls inspects the actual contents of packets? A. Packet filtering firewall B. Application-level firewall C. Circuit-level firewall D. Stateful inspection firewall Correct Answer: B The application level firewall inspects the contents of packets, rather than the source/destination or connection between the two. An Application level firewall operates at the application layer of the OSI model. Answer option C is incorrect. The circuit-level firewall regulates traffic based on whether or not a trusted connection has been established. It operates at the session layer of the OSI model. Answer option A is incorrect. The packet filtering firewall filters traffic based on the headers. It operates at the network layer of the OSI model. Answer option D is incorrect. The stateful inspection firewall assures the connection between the two parties is valid and inspects packets from this connection to assure the packets are not malicious. Reference: “http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Firewall_(networking)#Third_generation_ _application_layer”
QUESTION 11 Which of the following is the MOST sensitive Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and should be shared cautiously and only with trusted resources? A. Email address B. Phone number C. Mother\\’s maiden name D. Last name Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Your customer is using Windows Vista and complains about the quality of picture he is getting on his monitor. You find that you cannot adjust the refresh rate or the resolution. What is the most likely cause? A. The video card is not recognized by Windows. B. The monitor is not compatible with the video card. C. The video card has failed. D. The video card does not have enough video RAM. Correct Answer: A When Windows does not recognize the video card, it gives a set of simplified default settings for refresh rate, resolution, etc. Answer option B is incorrect. As long as the monitor can plug into the card, it is compatible. Answer option C is incorrect. If the video card had failed, there would have been no picture at all on the monitor screen. Answer option D is incorrect. Lack of sufficient video RAM would just prevent certain graphics from being displayed. Reference: http://www.technibble.com/troubleshooting-video-cards-problems-and- solutions/
QUESTION 13 An attacker cracks a user\\’s password for all social media, email, and bank accounts. The user needs to change the passwords for all these accounts. Which of the following should the user do in the future to prevent this from happening? A. Disable unused browser toolbars. B. Clear the browser cache. C. Avoid credential reuse. D. Delete tracking cookies. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 Which of the following storage methods provides the HIGHEST redundancy and availability? A. Cloud-based storage B. Storage Area Network C. Locally attached storage D. Network Attached Storage Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15 You work as a computer technician. When you start your computer, you find that the computer\\’s CMOS battery has failed. You replace the CMOS battery. What will be your next step after replacing the CMOS battery? A. Run the DEFRAG utility. B. Create a partition on the hard disk drive. C. Run the SCANDISK utility. D. Reboot the computer and set the date and time. Correct Answer: D When a computer\\’s CMOS battery is replaced, the system clock of the computer is reset. Therefore, your next step after replacing the CMOS battery will be to reboot the computer and to set the date and time. What is a CMOS battery? Hide A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration, date, and time settings when a computer\\’s main power is off. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery. Answer option C is incorrect. SCANDISK is a Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. Answer option A is incorrect. DEFRAG is a system utility used to consolidate the fragmented files stored on the hard disk of a computer. The fragmented files are those files that are saved or stored in different locations of the hard disk. The tool arranges such files and stores them on the hard disk in contiguous blocks. The operating system can access these files at a faster rate than the fragmented ones. Answer option B is incorrect. Creating a partition on the hard disk drive has nothing to do with the issue. Reference: TechNet, Contents: “Chapter 21 – Troubleshooting Startup and Disk Problems”
QUESTION 16 Which of the following would BEST be described as password best practices? (Select THREE). A. Use of long passwords B. Sharing passwords with a trusted source C. Limiting password reuse D. Keeping default passwords E. Use of special characters F. Writing down difficult passwords Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 17 Which of the following is the BEST reason to change a wireless router\\’s default SSID? A. To make it easier to identify in a location with several routers. B. To make the network feel more personal. C. To make it more difficult to join. D. To make the network secure. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 A user, Joe, is concerned about the safety of his personal information on a website. Which of the following can Joe look for to ensure that his personal information is not at risk? (Select TWO). A. HTTP on the browser address bar B. Suspicious ads in the browser C. HTTPS on the browser address bar D. A lock symbol on the browser address bar E. The word secure in the browser address bar Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19 Several users want to share a common folder with high availability. Which of the following devices is BEST to use for this requirement? A. Large USB flash drive connected to a PC B. Medium capacity SATA hard drive C. Network attached storage appliance D. Firewall with security management Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20 A user wants to update a driver for additional features. Where would the user find a current version of the driver from an official source? A. Manufacturer\\’s CD/DVD that came with the computer B. Manufacturer\\’s web site C. Internet community support forums D. Third-party support web sites Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21 Which of the following types of attacks entices a user to disclose personal information such as social security number, bank account details, or credit card number? A. Password guessing attack B. Spoofing C. Phishing D. Replay attack Correct Answer: C Phishing is a type of scam that entice a user to disclose personal information such as social security number, bank account details, or credit card number. An example of phishing attack is a fraudulent e-mail that appears to come from a user\\’s bank asking to change his online banking password. When the user clicks the link available on the e-mail, it directs him to a phishing site which replicates the original bank site. The phishing site lures the user to provide his personal information. Answer option B is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else\\’s IP address to his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on- line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Answer option D is incorrect. Replay attack is a type of attack in which attackers capture packets containing passwords or digital signatures whenever packets pass between two hosts on a network. In an attempt to obtain an authenticated connection, the attackers then resend the captured packet to the system. Answer option A is incorrect. A password guessing attack occurs when an unauthorized user tries to log on repeatedly to a computer or network by guessing usernames and passwords. Many password guessing programs that attempt to break passwords are available on the Internet. Following are the types of password guessing attacks: Brute force attack Dictionary attack Reference: “http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing”
QUESTION 22 Which of the following functions can transfer a file between folders and deletes it from the original folder? A. Edit B. Move C. Copy D. Paste Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23 Which of the following is the function of a CPU? A. Encrypts data for remote transmission B. Performs data computation C. Supplies electricity to components D. Provides storage location for files Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 Which of the following application types is MOST often used for doing a mail merge? A. PDF software B. Word processor C. Presentation software D. Personal information manager Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25 Which of the following are considered input devices for a computer? (Select TWO). A. Mouse B. Printer C. Speakers D. Microphone E. Monitor Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 26 Which of the following connectors supports both high definition video and audio? A. S-video B. Component C. HDMI D. DVI Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27 Which of the following are types of Random Access Memory (RAM) ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. EDO RAM B. DRAM C. SRAM D. VRAM E. NRAM Correct Answer: ABD These are the type of Random Access Memory: DRAM EDO RAM SRAM VRAM What is the function of DRAM? Hide Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is used as the primary memory for computers and workstations. It requires having its storage cells refreshed or given a new electronic charge every few milliseconds. What is an EDO RAM? Hide EDO RAM stands for Extended Data Out RAM. It is a type of memory, which improves performance of the computer by eliminating memory wait states. What is the function of SRAM? Hide Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer\\’s cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. Unlike DRAM, SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. What is VRAM? Hide VRAM, also known as Video RAM, is used to store image data for processing by the video adapter. It is the memory that stores information about the pictures that display on the monitor screen. Answer option E is incorrect. There is no RAM such as NRAM.
QUESTION 28 Which of the following defines why backup verification is important? A. To ensure that the backup runs as quickly as possible B. To ensure that the backup can be stored indefinitely C. To ensure that the backup can be saved to the cloud D. To ensure that the backup contains usable data Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29 Which of the following devices has a 15-pin 3 row connector? A. Joystick port B. VGA monitor C. Parallel port D. Serial port Correct Answer: B The VGA monitor uses a 15-pin 3 row connector to connect to a video adapter. Older Color Graphic Array (CGA) video standard monitors use 9- pin connectors to connect to DB-9 female connectors on CGA adapters. Answer option D is incorrect. Serial port is the primary means for connecting modems and mouse to a computer. There are two types of serial port connectors, 9-pin and 25-pin. The word serial refers to the that data is sent in series, one bit at a time, over a single wire. This design is significantly slower than sending 8 bits at a time via a parallel channel, but serial signals can travel much farther without degradation. Answer option A is incorrect. The joystick port has a 15-pin 2 row male connector. Answer option C is incorrect. A parallel port is a 25-pin 2 row female connector on the back of a PC. It is used to connect printers, scanners, etc. A parallel port transfers information between computers and peripheral devices 8 bits at a time. ECP, EPP, and SPP are types of parallel ports.
QUESTION 30 An employee is using a desk phone that is connected only via a network cable. Which of the following technologies is the phone using? A. LTE B. GSM C. VoIP D. CDMA Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31 Which of the following extension types are associated with document files? (Select THREE). A. .txt B. .odf C. .msi D. .rtf E. .mp3 F. .tar G. .jpg Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 32 Which of the following items require ESD precautions? A. Upgrading to a new touch screen monitor B. Adding a micro SD card to a smartphone C. Installing an compact flash card into a laptop D. Replacing RAM in a personal computer Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33 Which of the following ports support hot swapping? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. USB B. Parallel C. Serial D. IEEE 1394 Correct Answer: AD USB and IEEE 1394 ports support hot swapping. What is USB? Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. What is IEEE 1394? Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 is a standard for high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. These devices include consumer audiovisual components, traditional PC storage devices, and handheld devices. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Serial and parallel ports do not support hot swapping or hot plugging.
QUESTION 34 Which of the following are removable storage devices/media? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. CD-ROM B. SD card C. Hard disk drive D. USB Pen drive Correct Answer: ABD CD-ROM, SD card, USB Pen drive, floppy disk, etc., are removable storage media. CD-ROM (Compact Disc Read-Only Memory) is a type of removable storage optical media. It can store up to 1GB of data, although most common CD- ROMs store 700MB of data. It comes in a standard size and format, so users can load any type of CD-ROM into any CD drive or CD-ROM player. Once data is written to a CD-ROM, it cannot be erased or changed. SD card is a removable storage device. Secure Digital (SD) card is a non-volatile memory card format used in portable devices such as mobile phones, digital cameras, and handheld computers. SD cards are based on the older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but they are a little thicker than MMC cards. Generally an SD card offers a write-protect switch on its side. SD cards generally measure 32 mm x 24 mm x 2.1 mm, but they can be as thin as 1.4 mm. The devices that have SD card slots can use the thinner MMC cards, but the standard SD cards will not fit into the thinner MMC slots. Some SD cards are also available with a USB connector. SD card readers allow SD cards to be accessed via many connectivity ports such as USB, FireWire, and the common parallel port. USB Pen drive is a removable storage device. A pen drive is also known as a USB flash drive. It is a small device used to transfer data from one computer to another through USB ports. Pen drives are available in various capacities. When a pen drive is plugged into the USB port, Windows Explorer shows it as a removable drive. Answer option C is incorrect. The hard disk drive is not a removable storage media. It is installed inside the computer case. It can store large amounts of data and provides fast read/write performance. HDD can be connected to a computer with the Integrated Device Electronics (IDE), Small Computer System Interface (SCSI), and SATA interface. It consists of inflexible platters coated with material in which data is recorded magnetically with read/write heads. Note: Only external hard disk drives are removable devices.
QUESTION 35 A laptop owner, Ann, can no longer see web pages when she opens her browser, and she can only see her search bars and plug-ins. Which of the following is the MOST likely source of this issue? A. The computer does not have current antivirus software installed B. The computer needs to have its components upgraded C. The downloaded toolbars are filling the browser screen D. The owner was not using complex passwords Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36 Which of the following is considered an optical storage medium? A. SSD B. Blu-Ray C. Flash drive D. Memory card Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37 A user wants to run a major update on a laptop. Which of the following should be considered before running any major updates? A. Restore folders from back up B. Change administrator account password C. Back up important folders D. Print all personal documents Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38 A user is at the office and has a cellular phone that previously functioned properly. The phone is powered on with a fully charged battery. However, the phone does not have connectivity. Which of the following describes the problem? A. Phone is disconnected from WiFi B. Provider is conducting system testing C. MAC address is bad D. Phone is in airplane mode Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39 Which of the following software package types is designed to accept input from multiple users? A. Utility B. Operating system C. Specialized D. Collaborative Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40 You have an older Windows 98 computer. You wish to upgrade to Windows Vista Home Basic. What must you do? A. First upgrade to Windows 2000 then upgrade to Vista Home Basic. B. First upgrade to Windows XP Pro, then upgrade to Vista Home Basic. C. Simply buy and install the Windows Vista Home Basic Upgrade. D. First upgrade to Windows XP Home, then upgrade to Vista Home Basic. Correct Answer: D You will have to first upgrade to Windows XP home, and then to Vista Home. Answer option C is incorrect. Windows 98 cannot be directly upgraded to Windows Vista. Answer option B is incorrect. Windows XP professional cannot be upgraded to Windows Vista Home Basic, but it can be upgraded to Windows Vista Business or Ultimate. Answer option A is incorrect. Windows 2000 cannot be upgraded to Windows Vista. Reference: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/931225
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Latest effective CompTIA A+ 220-901 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which of the following BEST explains how the data rate is doubled in DDR RAM? A. CPU clock speed is doubled B. Uses 64-bit instead of 32-bit architecture C. Memory clock speed is doubled D. Data transfer on both clock edges Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A technician needs to order cable that meets 10GBaseT and fire safety requirements for an installation between a drop ceiling and a standard ceiling. Which of the following should the technician order to ensure compliance with the requirements? A. PVC Cat 5 B. plenum Cat 5e C. Plenum Cat 6a D. PVC Cat 7 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A technician is notified of an inkjet printer not printing properly. The user\\’s computer has the printer software loaded and is not displaying any errors. A test print was performed, with one of the colors not printing properly. Which of the following would the technician typically perform FIRST to resolve the issue? A. Replace cartridges B. Run a cleaning page C. Clean heads D. Clean fuser assembly Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A user reports an ability to print to a newly installed printer. The assigned technician discovers the user is attempting To print that has been removed from the network. The technician attempts to delete the old printer but cannot. The technician discovers jobs in the queue but cannot clear the queue. Which of the following is NEXT step the technician should take? A. Restart the print spooler service. B. Check IP on the printer. C. Perform a hard reset on the printer. D. Change the user\\’s printer permissions. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 To configure two drives for MAXIMUM performance, which of the following RAID types should be used? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A customer wants to be able to archive a large 15 to 20 GB project to optical media using a single disk. Which of the following should a technician recommend? A. Blu-Ray writer B. DVD-RW drive C. Dual Layer DVD burner D. CD-ROM burner Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which of the following connectors can be used for video, audio, and storage devices? A. DVI B. DisplayPort C. HDMI D. Thunderbolt Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A user, Joe, is watching a training education video and notices dark pin-sized dots in the same location on his laptop LCD screen. Which of the following is the cause of this issue? A. Distorted image B. Dead pixels C. Pixelation D. Incorrect color palette Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 The device that allows two different networks to communicate with one another is: A. a repeater. B. a hub. C. a router. D. an access point. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which of the following provides two-factor authentication? A. Username+ password B. Smart card +PIN C. Fingerprint+ retina scan D. key fob + ID card Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Joe, a user, wants to modify the fan speed settings on his PC. Which of the following locations allows the fan speed settings to be changed? A. BIOS B. Device Manager C. Motherboard Jumpers D. Computer Management Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which of the following encryption types is send with WPA2? A. TKIP B. SSH C. AES D. SSL Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 A customer is reporting that after removing a laptop from the docking station and bringing it home, the cursor occasionally jumps around the screen while the customer is typing. Which of the following should the technician do to mitigate this issue? A. Disable the touch pad on the laptop B. Install new keyboard drivers for the laptop C. Install new drivers for the docking station D. Disable the keyboard on the laptop Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 Which of the following expansion slots is MOST commonly used for high-end video cards? A. PCI B. PCIe C. CNR D. AGP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15 Joe\\’s company just moved into a new building, and the company\\’s management is very concerned about proper equipment grounding. Which of the following risks are they attempting to mitigate by grounding equipment? A. Security breaches B. Electrical shock C. Chemical burns D. Equipment theft Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16 Which of the following MUST be the same when replacing a hard drive in a laptop? A. The interface type of the existing drive B. The speed of the new drive C. The total data capacity of the PC D. The cache size of the new drive Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 A network technician has been tasked with deploying new VoIP phones on a network. When the technician plugs the Ethernet cable for the phone into the wall port, the phone fails to turn on. When the technician plugs the Ethernet cable directly into the computer, the computer is able to access the network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue? A. The network switch does not support PoE B. The technician is connecting the phone to the wrong type of port C. The firewall on the network is blocking access to the DHCP server D. The Ethernet cable is the wrong type Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 USB 2.0 and which of the following ports share the same connector? A. Micro USB 2.0 B. Mini USB 2.0 C. Micro USB 3.0 D. USB 3.0 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19 A user is requesting a cable to charge and transfer data for an Apple mobile device. Which of the following connection types would satisfy the user\\’s requirements? A. MicroUSB B. Molex C. MiniUSB D. Lightning Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20 A technician is setting up a PC to host server in a SOHO. The technician uses a second router for this PC but finds the web server is not accessible from the internet. The technician verifies the web server itself is properly configured. Which of the following could be enabled on the router allow all traffic to reach the web server? A. IPv6 B. UPnP C. DMZ D. WPA2 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21 A computer technician wants to boot up a computer using a USB flash drive. After inserting the USB drive and powering on the computer, it does not boot to the flash drive and instead boots to the OS on the hard drive. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. The boot order in the BIOS is incorrect B. The hard drive is not formatted C. There is a disc in the optical drive D. There is insufficient memory Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22 A technician is tasked with connecting a digital to a computer that requires a 4GB connection speed. Which of the following types of connection cables is sufficient for this requirement? A. DVI-D B. Thunderbolt C. DVI D. HDMI Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23 A technician installs a new video card in a desktop with onboard video. The technician boots the unit but sees no display. The monitor power light is on and the OS seems to be loading. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. The display is defective. B. The video card needs to be flashed. C. The internal adapter has not been disabled. D. The new video card is defective. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24 A technician receives a call that a client\\’s PC is not booting after a recent test of the building\\’s back-up generators. When the technician arrives, it is discovered that, once powered on, there is no output display or POST beep codes. Furthermore, after 15 seconds, the system\\’s fans begin running much louder and faster. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue? A. The motherboard was damaged by the power test. B. The PC\\’s RAM was affected by ESD. C. The power supply was damaged and is nonfunctional. D. The hard drive was erased due to the power test. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25 A technician is notified that a laptop is not booting. It is discovered that there are no system lights, sounds, or display when the power button is pressed. Which of the following should the technician attempt FIRST in the troubleshooting process? A. Connect an external monitor into the laptop to determine if the LCD has failed. B. Boot the system from either a boot CD or other removable media type. C. Disconnect the AC and battery power and hold the power button for several seconds. D. Remove any hard drives or optical drives, RAM, and any wireless cards or USB devices from the laptop. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26 User has been terminated but is allowed to create a backup of personal files. The user has 5 2GB of data to save, the company has agreed to give the user a disk to store information. Which of the following should be issued to hold all of the information with the MAXIMUM amount of utilized Space? A. DVD-RW B. BD-R DL C. DVD-R DL D. BD-R Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 A technician has been asked to install a printer on a Windows XP machine. Through which of the following Control Panel utilities will the technician install the printer? A. Printers and Devices B. Devices and Printers C. Printers and Faxes D. Devices Correct Answer: C http://wiki.answers.com/Q/In_Windows_XP_how_do_you_open_the_Printers_and_Faxes_ win dow
QUESTION 28 A technician wants to simplify users\\’ wireless configuration in a new remote office. Which of the following must be configured on the access point to allow wireless clients to automatically negotiate secure authentication with the SOHO access point? A. Enable QoS B. Enable SSID Broadcast C. Enable WPS D. Enable MAC filtering Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29 A network printer is online and ready. The accounting group is unable to print to this network printer, but other departments can. Which of the following would the technician use to resolve the problem? A. Replace the printer\\’s network cable B. Modify the security setting of the print spooler C. Restart the TCP/IP print spooler service D. Use the manufacturer\\’s maintenance kit Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30 Ann is cleaning the printer pickup rollers and spills the cleaning fluid on her leg. In which of the following would she find the proper way to cleanup the spill? A. Inventory spreadsheet B. MSDS C. Project management plan D. EULA Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31 A technician looks at an ARP table in an attempt to resolve a connectivity issue. After table of the switch is a cleared, a different MAC in the output, Which of the following does this indicate? A. ARP flooding B. VLAN mismatch C. Duplicate IP address D. Faulty NIC Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32 Jot, a user, has installed a new monitor on an existing system. Jot calls a support technician and reports that everything on the new display is fuzzy. Which of the following describes what needs to be changed to correct this issue? A. The display resolution needs to match the native resolution. B. The old graphics card does not support the new monitor. C. The new monitor cable needs to have aluminum cores installed. D. The new monitor requires updated drivers to be installed. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33 A user has requested to have an extra 4GB of memory installed on a laptop. During the Installation process, which of the following parts of the laptop will the technician need to remove? A. CD-ROM drive B. CMOS battery C. Access panel D. Hard drive Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 Which of the following is the maximum throughput of a USB 3.0 connection? A. 800 Mbps B. 3 Gbps C. 4.8 Gbps D. 10 Gbps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35 Ann, a user, brings her laptop in and reports that it is no longer charging. Additionally, the laptop can no longer stay powered on even when plugged in. Which of the following hardware components is MOST likely in need of replacement? A. Hard drive B. Memory modules C. System fan D. Wireless card E. System board Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 36 Which of the following should a technician do NEXT after reporting an incident? A. Delete the content B. Confiscate the PC C. Go back to work D. Document the incident Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37 A user, Ann, reports that her company laptop cannot pick up a wireless connection in certain areas of a building. However, users working on their laptops in the common areas have Internet connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. Weak RF signals B. Out of date Ethernet driver C. Enabled MAC filtering D. Duplicate IP addresses Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38 Which of the following would be used to connect two remote sites? A. Switch B. Access point C. Router D. Hub Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39 RAID 5 requires a minimum of how many hard drives? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40 A user needs access to a shared mailbox inside the mobile mail application through the company\\’s cloud-based email service. Which of the following protocols is required to make this possible? A. IMAP B. S/MIME C. SMTP D. SNMP Correct Answer: C
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Latest effective CompTIA A+ 220-802 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 An IR printer stops working for half of an office while the other half is able to print. Which of the following should be checked FIRST? A. Proper lighting B. Paper levels C. Physical obstructions D. Printer share name Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A user sent an email requesting that a technician check if a computer is on and connected to the Internet so the user can login from home. Which of the following commands in the command prompt would a technician use to verify if the computer is on and connected without having to go to the computer? A. NSLOOKUP B. NETSTAT C. PING D. IPCONFIG Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A small business owner is looking to assign users to a Windows group level. They have the following requirements for these users, and stress that they should receive no more privileges than necessary: The users should not be able to change passwords for higher level accounts. The users need the ability to install software. The users cannot create new accounts for others. Which of the following group levels will BEST meet these needs? A. Remote Desktop Users B. Power Users C. Standard Users D. Administrators Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 In iOS, which of the following settings would need to be configured for ActiveSync? A. Mail, Contacts, and Calendars B. Music and Videos C. Phone and Messages D. Notifications and Location Services Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Mike, a technician, is getting ready to upgrade the graphics card in a customer\\’s computer with a performance PCIe graphics card. The customer has verified that she has a 16x PCIe slot on her motherboard. Which of the following may also need to be upgraded? A. RAM B. Motherboard C. Power supply D. Processor Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 A technician needs to use a command line tool to determine the network name and the IP address of a resource. Which of the following command line tools will provide an IP address when given a name? A. verify B. Tracert C. Ipconfig D. Nslookup Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 A technician installs a new graphics card that supports high resolutions. The technician sets the resolution to the highest setting and then the monitor displays no video. The technician hits the enter key to exit and nothing happens. After a reboot, no video appears after the operating system loads. Which of the following would the technician perform NEXT? A. Reseat the graphics card in a different slot B. Update the graphics card driver C. Reinstall the operating system D. Change the resolution in Safe Mode Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A technician is having boot issues with a newly built PC, and notices the following jumper configurations for each PATA device: HARD DRIVE. MASTER OPTICAL DRIVE. CABLE SELECT Which of the following jumper configurations should be used instead? A. HDD. Cable Select; Optical Drive. Master B. HDD. Cable Select; Optical Drive. Cable Select C. HDD. Slave; Optical Drive. Slave D. HDD. Master; Optical Drive. Master Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which of the following is one of the major differences between a new tablet and a new laptop computer? A. Tablet has no field serviceable parts. B. Laptop has less field functionality. C. Tablet has faster Ethernet capability. D. Laptops have slower responsiveness than tablets. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A technician is taking apart a laptop in order to replace an internal part. During this process, which of the following represents a best practice? A. Only perform the work on a plastic counter top B. Never use a power tool to remove screws from the case C. Label the screws according to where they came from D. When working on the bottom of a laptop, always leave the screen open Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which of the following commands is used to map a network drive? A. NBTSTAT B. NET USE C. NETMAP D. NETSTAT Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 A night shift employee constantly fails to logoff at the end of their shift. The employee on the next shift regularly does not bother to log in because they are not prompted to do so. Which of the following actions would be BEST for the technician to do to correct this issue? A. Write up each employee every time the login and logoff policy is ignored. B. Have each employee report to their supervisor at the end of their shift. C. Set the computer to restart after each employee\\’s shift. D. Educate employees to log off within an hour of their shift. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 A technician needs to create a new folder from the command line on the root of the C. drive. Which of the following is the correct command to use? A. CD B. MD C. PUSHD D. RD Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14 A user reports that the laptop\\’s screen flickers and then goes black. When connecting to an external monitor the operating system desktop is displayed. Which of the following is the cause of the problem? A. Monitor function key B. Resolution is set too low C. Inverter board D. Display adapter drivers Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Which of the following actions can Power Users perform? A. Create local users accounts B. Backup the operating system and system files C. Install computer applications that require administrative privileges D. Modify any local user account Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 A technician is setting up a wired SOHO network for a client. The client would like to ensure that unauthorized PCs are not easily able to communicate on the network. Which of the following can the technician do? A. Enable MAC filtering B. Encrypt passwords C. Disable SSID D. Disable DHCP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 When setting up a new wireless router, which of the following actions should the technician take FIRST in order to secure the network? (Select TWO). A. Disable unused ports B. Change the SSID C. Position the antennas to prevent outside access D. Enable MAC filtering E. Change the default user name Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18 Which of the following allows a user to enable XP mode? A. Windows Vista Home Premium B. Windows 7 Professional C. Windows 7 Home Premium D. Windows Vista Ultimate Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 A technician encounters a PC where they can hear the power supply fan running, but the system is not booting up and there is no display. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes? (Select TWO). A. Bad PCI card B. Bad Motherboard C. Bad RAM D. Bad boot.ini file E. Bad Power Supply Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 20 A user has a work laptop configured with a static IP. The user wants to be able to take the laptop home and connect it to their router which uses DHCP. However, the user does not want to manually change their settings every day. Which of the following is the BEST step the user could take to make this possible? A. Setup a VPN on the laptop to store the work IP settings. B. Use the Ethernet port at work and only use Wi-Fi while at home. C. Install an additional NIC in the laptop to access the home network. D. Place the static IP in the alternative field while using DHCP. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21 A small business owner is concerned about any non-business owned devices being connected to their network. Which of the following actions would be the MOST secure way to ensure that only business owned devices can connect? A. Enable MAC filtering on the router B. Remove all extra patch cables from open ports C. Secure the router and switches in a locked room D. Disable the DHCP service on the router Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22 A technician needs to change the minimum password length to 8 characters to make it more secure. Which of the following system settings should the technician configure? A. Windows Firewall B. Windows Security Center C. Local Security Policy D. System Configuration Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23 A wireless network is experiencing intermittent connectivity. Which of the following would BEST resolve this issue? A. Enable MAC filtering B. Change broadcast channel C. Enable wireless encryption D. Disable SSID broadcasting Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 An employee receives a phone call inquiring about company information. This is an example of which of the following? A. Phishing B. Social engineering C. Shoulder surfing D. Rootkits Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25 A user, Ann, reports that she suspects her workstation has malware. Joe, the technician, confirms malware exists and starts the process of removing the malware. Which of the following is the FIRST step he should take in removing the malware? A. Disable antivirus B. Disable system restore C. Enable hard drive encryption D. Format the hard drive Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26 A senior technician requests a diagnostic tool for checking external ports and connectors on computers and laptops. Which of the following tools would BEST accomplish this task? A. Wireless locator B. Corona wire C. Toner probe D. Loopback plugs Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27 A printer has been repurposed to another part of the building. When configured to work with the new department, it intermittently prints and at times prints unrequested jobs. The cable tester reveals the Ethernet cable is properly configured. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue? A. Incorrect driver B. IP conflict C. Slow transfer speeds D. Limited connectivity Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28 Which of the following allows a Windows 7 remote user to edit a file offline then automatically update the changes when back in the office? A. Windows Defender B. Sync Center C. Windows Aero D. HomeGroup Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29 An administrator wishes to prevent users from accessing unattended computers in other departments. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this? A. Use a roaming profile using domain credentials. B. Implement event monitoring of user logins on every PC. C. Enforce a password-protected screensaver after five minutes of inactivity. D. Use a common login and password for multiple users based upon department. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30 Ann reports that upon booting up her workstation the screen says that no boot device is found. She also reports that she hears a faint clicking noise from the workstation. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem? A. The hard drive has failed. B. The CMOS battery needs to be replaced. C. The CPU fan has failed. D. The sound card is incorrectly cabled. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 Which of the following allows a user to pinch zoom on an Android device? A. Accelerometer B. Micro USB port C. Multi-touch D. A trackball Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32 Ann, a small business owner, would like to implement wireless networking for her business but wants to be sure the wireless is ONLY accessible from within her business\\’ premises. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this? A. Disabling SSID broadcast to ensure that only employees know the SSID B. Using unidirectional antennas and reducing radio power levels appropriately C. Assigning DHCP addresses that expire after a shorter period of time D. Using omni-directional antennas and reducing radio power levels appropriately Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33 A user has reported a file permissions issue to the network administrator. The administrator tries to recreate the problem on their computer but has no trouble accessing the file. Which of the following BEST describes what is occurring? A. The user did not taken ownership of the file from the server. B. The user is logged in using the wrong local profile. C. The user is not in the appropriate group to have access to the file. D. The user has been granted “read only” access to the file. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34 A technician has developed training material to ensure employees physically secure company laptops from being stolen. Which of the following is a preventative directive that MUST be included in the training material? A. RFID tags must be attached to all laptops and receivers to all doors to alert when a laptop leaves the designated area. B. Biometrics devices must be installed on all laptops. C. All computers must be equipped with privacy filters. D. Employees must remember to lock their office doors when leaving even for a short period of time. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35 Which of the following describes when a child folder has the same permissions as its parent folder? A. Single sign-on B. Propagation C. Administrative share D. Inheritance Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36 Which of the following security threats does NOT use software to extract sensitive information or credentials? A. Grayware B. Shoulder surfing C. Malware D. Man-in-the-Middle exploits Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37 A SOHO location is being remodeled and the users are concerned about unauthorized traffic on their network during the remodel. The WLAN needs to be able to allow various types of devices to securely connect 24 hours a day while requiring the least amount of overhead to manage. Which of the following security implementations would MOST likely be implemented? A. Setting encryption B. Resetting all user-names and passwords C. Assign static IP addresses D. Enable MAC filtering Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38 Ann, the network administrator, is notified that the server is responding very slowly. Upon entering the server room, she notices one of the drives in a RAID1 array has failed. Which of the following would BEST restore full functionality of the server while preserving redundancy? A. Use Disk Management to remove the RAID array and use the drive standalone. B. Use the RAID configuration tool to remove the RAID array and use the drive standalone. C. Remove the failed drive in device manager and continue operating. D. Replace the drive with a new drive and repair the RAID. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39 A user has a nonfunctional computer that has two hard drives. The user needs to retrieve information from one of the drives. Which of the following would be used? A. Reformat bad hard drives B. External enclosure C. Reformat all hard drives D. CHKDSK along with DEFRAG utility Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40 Which of the following operating systems supports full usage of 8GB DDR3 RAM? A. Windows 7 Professional x86 B. Windows 7 Home Premium x64 C. Windows XP Professional D. Windows Vista Home Premium x86 Correct Answer: B
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Latest effective Cisco 300-320 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 When designing data centers for multitenancy, which two benefits are provided by the implementation of VSAN and zoning? (choose two) A. VSAN provides a means of restricting visibility and connectivity among devices connected to a zone B. VSANs have their own set of services and address space, which prevents an issue in one VSAN from affecting others C. Zones provide the ability to create many logical SAN fabrics on a single Cisco MDS 9100 family switch D. VSANs and zones use separate fabrics E. Zones allow an administrator to control which initiators can see which targets Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 2 While configuring a QoS policy, analysis of the switching infrastructure indicates that the switches support 1P3Q3T egress queuing. Which option describes the egress queuing in the infrastructure? A. The threshold configuration allows for inter-queue QoS by utilizing buffers. B. The priority queue must contain real-time traffic and network management traffic. C. The 1P3Q3T indicates one priority queue, three standard queues, and three thresholds. D. The priority queue should use less than 20% of the total bandwidth. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which three authentication services are supported by Cisco NAC Appliance? (Choose three.) A. RADIUS B. LDAP C. Kerberos D. TACACS+ E. local F. SNMP Correct Answer: ABC Working with Existing Backend Authentication Servers When working with existing backend authentication servers, Cisco supports the following authentication protocol types: Kerberos RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) Windows NT (NTLM Auth Server) LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/nac/appliance/configuration_guide/47/cam/ 47cam-book/m_auth.html
QUESTION 4 Design for data center where you don\\’t have to dedicate one switch per rack? A. Top of rack B. End of row C. Blade Switch D. Middle of row Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Cisco FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are two advantages of using Cisco FabricPath technology? (Choose two) A. Cisco FabricPath relies on OSPF to support Layer 2 forwarding between switches, which allows load balancing between redundant paths. B. Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning. C. Loop mitigation is provided by the TTL field in the frame. D. Cisco FabricPath is IETF-standard and is not used with Cisco products. E. Cisco FabricPath technology is supported in all Cisco platforms and can replace legacy Ethernet in all campus networks. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 Which four primary attributes define a WAN service? (Choose four.) A. bandwidth B. bursting capacity C. memory D. CPU E. QoS classes and policies F. latency G. multicast support Correct Answer: ABEG
QUESTION 7 Which command can you enter to inject BGP routes into an IGP? A. redistribute bgp B. redistribute static C. redistribute static subnet D. default-information originate Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit.An engineer must apply IP addressing to five new WAN sites and choses the new subnets pictured. The previous administrator applied the addressing at Headquarters. Whitch option is the minimum summary range to cover the existing WAN sites while also allowing for three additional WAN sites of the same size, for future growth? A. 10.0.60.0/18 B. 10.0.64.0/21 C. 10.0.64.0/17 D. 10.0.0.0/17 E. 10.0.64.0/18 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9 What QoS technology allows traffic to pass even though it has exceeded the bandwidth limit but will be queued later? A. Shaping B. Policing C. Weighted Fair Queuing D. Low Latency Queuing Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 An engineer is redesigning the infrastructure for a campus environment. The engineer must maximize the use of the links between the core and distribution layers. By which two methods can this usage be maximized? (Choose two.) A. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use RPVSTP+ B. Design with multiple unequal-cost links between the core and distribution layers. C. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use an IGP D. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use HSRP. E. Design with multiple equal-cost links between the core and distribution layers. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 11 An CSPF router should have a maximum of how many adjacent neighbors? A. 80 B. 60 C. 100 D. 50 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 DRAG DROP Drag and Drop question with regards to Cisco Application-Centric Infrastructure ACI . Select and Place:
QUESTION 13 What is the preferred protocol for a router that is running an IPv4 and IPv6 dual stack configuration? A. IPX B. microsoft Netbios C. IPv6 D. IPv4 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 Which one of these could you implement to sustain a large DDoS attack? A. Stateful firewall B. uRPF C. Connections limits and timeouts D. Access-lists Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Which statement about Fibre Channel communications is correct? A. N_Port to N_Port connections use logical node connection points. B. Flow control is only provided by QoS. C. It must be implemented in an arbitrated loop. D. Communication methods are similar to those of an Ethernet bus. Correct Answer: A Fibre Channel supports a logical node connection point between node ports (N_ports). This is similar to TCP and UDP sockets.
QUESTION 16 What location are security policies enforced in ACI? A. End Point B. Spine C. Leaf D. APIC Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 L2 extention through IP in the data center (MAC-in-IP) A. fiberpath B. TRILL C. OTV D. Vxlan Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18 What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management? A. It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management. B. Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage. C. There is no separation between the production network and the management network. D. SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.) A. multicast routing uses RPF. B. multicast routing is connectionless. C. In multicast routing, the source of a packet is known. D. When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not rebuilt, but use the original path E. Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the only difference being that it has a a group of receivers rather than just one destination Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20 Which statement about the ToR design model is true? A. It can shorten cable runs and simplify rack connectivity. B. Each ToR switch must be individually managed. C. Multiple ToR switches can be interconnected to provide a loop-free spanning-tree infrastructure. D. It can connect servers that are located in separate racks. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 Which Cisco feature can be run on a Cisco router that terminates a WAN connection, to gather and provide WAN circuit information that helps switchover to dynamically back up the WAN circuit? A. Cisco Express Forwarding B. IP SLA C. passive interface D. traffic shaping Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 A company needs to configure a new firewall and have only one public IP address to use in this firewall. The engineer need to configure the firewall with NAT to handle inbound traffic to the mail server in addition to internet outbound traffic.Which options could he use ? (Choose Two) A. Static NAT for inbound traffic on port 25 B. Dynamic NAT for outbound traffic C. Static NAT for outbound traffic on port 25 D. Dynamic NAT for inbound traffic E. NAT overload for outbound traffic F. NAT overload for inboud traffic on port 25 Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 23 Which two key components are related to one firewall per ISP design option for e-commerce? (Choose two.) A. It is a common approach to single-homing. B. This approach is commonly used in large sites. C. Any failure on an edge router results in a loss of session. D. It has one NAT to two ISP-assigned blocks. E. It is difficult to set up and administer. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 24 Which technology should a network designer combine with VSS to ensure a loop free topology with optimal convergence time? A. Portfast B. UplinkFast C. RPVST + D. Mulitchassis EtherChannel Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25 A Network administrator want to increase the security level in the core layer and want to confirm that the users that have their default GW on an interface in the core switch can access specific networks and can\\’t access the remaining networks. Which feature can help him to achieve this? A. vlan access control list B. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html C. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 A company have single ASA hardware box and they need to separate company departments in way that they can apply different rules on them, ACL, NAT, and so on… Which mode is needed? A. routed mode B. transparent mode C. multiple context mode D. active failover mode Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27 ` the rule on the left to match the appropriate activity on the right. Select and Place:Correct Answer:
QUESTION 28 DRAG DROP Select and Place:Correct Answer: Enable specifically at the network edge >STP Manually prune unused VLANs >Trunks Use specifically on fiber-optic interconnections that link switches >UDLD Ensure that an individual link failure will not result in an STP failure >Etherchannel Always use a number of links that is a power of 2 (2, 4, 8) to optimize the load balancing of traffic> VSS
QUESTION 29 A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network. Which option should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task? A. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint. B. Configure QoS in all links. C. Configure a new NET address. D. Configure the links as point-to-point. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30 An engineer is designing a multi cluster bgp network, each cluster has 2 RRs and 4 RR clients which 2 options must be considered? A. Clients from all clusters should peer with all RRs B. All route reflectors should be non client peers and topology partially meshed C. All RRs must be non client peers in a fully meshed topology D. Clients must not peer with IBGP speakers outside the client router E. Clients should peer with at least one other client outside it\\’s cluster Correct Answer: DE Route reflectors must still be fully IBGP meshed with nonclients. Therefore, route reflectors reduce meshing within clusters, but all mesh links outside the cluster must be maintained on the route reflector. The route reflector clients get information from IBGP speakers outside the cluster via the route reflector.
QUESTION 31 What is an advantage of using the VPC feature in data center environment ? A. All available uplinks bandwidth is used. B. FHRP is not required C. A single IP is used for management of both devices D. The two switches form a single control plane Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32 What command essentially turns on auto summarization for EIGRP? A. area 0 range 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0.0 B. router eigrp 1 C. ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 D. ip summary-address 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 E. eigrp stub Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33 An engineer has an implemented a QOS architecture that requires a signaling protocol to tell routers which flows of packets require special treatment. Which two mechanisms are important to establish and maintaining QOS architecture? (choose two) A. classification B. tagging C. packet scheduling D. admission control E. resource reservation Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 34 A customer with a single Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance wants to separate multiple segments of the e-commerce network to allow for different security policies. What firewall technology accommodates these design requirements? A. Routed mode B. Virtual-context C. Transparent mode D. Virtual private network E. private VLANs F. admission control Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35 OTV to interconnect three data centers and what should there be in each data center A. VTEP B. vxlan ? Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 A customer requires resiliency and availability for applications hosted in the data center. What two technologies meet this requirement? (Choose two) A. SLB B. LTM C. GLBP D. GTM E. HSRP Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37 Which option prevents the dropping of asymmetrically routed packets in active/active failover paired firewalls? A. Nothing can be done to prevent this from happening. B. Configure different policies on both firewalls. C. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to the same asymmetric routing group. D. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to a different asymmetric routing group. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38 Which two options regarding the Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tag are true? (Choose two) A. It is assigned by the Cisco ISE to the user or endpoint session upon login B. Best practice dictates it should be statically created on the switch C. It is removed by the Cisco ISE before reaching the endpoint. D. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a guest group allowing access to minimal services E. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a security group for common services such as DNS and DHCP Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 39 In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 4 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40 When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer? A. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks Correct Answer: A
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Latest effective Cisco 300-209 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which header is used when a data plane IPsec packet is created? A. IKEv1 B. AES C. SHA D. ESP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE? A. 3DES B. AES C. DES D. RSA Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which two operational advantages does GetVPN offer over site-to-site IPsec tunnel in a private MPLS-based core network? (Choose two.) A. Key servers perform encryption and decryption of all the data in the network, which allows for tight security policies. B. Traffic uses one VRF to encrypt data and a different on to decrypt data, which allows for multicast traffic isolation. C. GETVPN is tunnel-less, which allows any group member to perform decryption and routing around network failures. D. Packets carry original source and destination IP addresses, which allows for optimal routing of encrypted traffic. E. Group Domain of Interpretation protocol allows for homomorphic encryption, which allows group members to operate on messages without decrypting them Correct Answer: CD http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/group-encrypted-transport- vpn/deployment_guide_c07_554713.html
QUESTION 4 An engineer must set up DMPN Phase2 with EIGRP to ensure spoke-to-spoke communication. Which two EIGRP features must be disabled? A. stub routing B. split horizon C. route redistribution D. auto-summary E. next-hop self Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 Which command clears all Cisco AnyConnect VPN sessions on a Cisco ASA? A. vpn-sessiondb logoff anyconnect B. vpn-sessiondb logoff webvpn C. clear crypto isakmp sa D. vpn-sessiondb logoff l2l Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which two option, are benefits of AES compared to 3DES? (Choose two.) A. switches encryption keys every 32 GB of data transfer B. faster encryption C. shorter encryption keys D. longer encryption block length E. repeating encryption keys Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7 The Cisco AnyConnect client is unable to download an updated user profile from the ASA headend using IKEv2. What is the most likely cause of this problem? A. User profile updates are not allowed with IKEv2. B. IKEv2 is not enabled on the group policy. C. A new profile must be created so that the adaptive security appliance can push it to the client on the next connection attempt. D. Client Services is not enabled on the adaptive security appliance. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A company has acquired a competitor whose network infrastructure uses only IPv6. An engineer must configure VPN access sourced from the new company. Which remote access VPN solution must be used? A. GET VPN B. Any Connect C. EzVPN D. DMVPN Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 What does DART stand for? A. Device and report tool B. Diagnostic Anyconnect Reporting Tool C. Delivery and Reporting Tool D. Diagnostics and Reporting Tool Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which option describes the purpose of the shared argument in the DMVPN interface command tunnel protection IPsec profile ProfileName shared? A. shares a single profile between multiple tunnel interfaces B. allows multiple authentication types to be used on the tunnel interface C. shares a single profile between a tunnel interface and a crypto map D. shares a single profile between IKEv1 and IKEv2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Using the Next Generation Encryption technologies, which is the minimum acceptable encryption level to protect sensitive information? A. AES 92 bits B. AES 128 bits C. AES 256 bits D. AES 512 bits Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel?A. incorrect PSK B. crypto access list mismatch C. incorrect tunnel group D. crypto policy mismatch E. incorrect certificate Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 You have been using pre-shared keys for IKE authentication on your VPN. Your network has grown rapidly, and now you need to create VPNs with numerous IPsec peers. How can you enable scaling to numerous IPsec peers? A. Migrate to external CA-based digital certificate authentication. B. Migrate to a load-balancing server. C. Migrate to a shared license server. D. Migrate from IPsec to SSL VPN client extended authentication. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN? A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPN B. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15 A company has a Flex VPN solution for remote access and one of their Cisco any Connect remote clients is having trouble connecting property. Which command verifies that packets are being encrypted and decrypted? A. show crypto session active B. show crypto ikev2 stats C. show crypto ikev1 sa D. show crypto ikev2 sa E. show crypto session detail Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16 Which option is one of the difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN? A. flexvpn uses ikev2 and dmvpn can use ikev1 or ikev2 B. dmvpn can use ikev1 and ikev2 where flexvpn only uses ikev1 C. flexvpn can use ikev1 and ikev2 where dmvpn uses only ikev2 D. dmvp uses ikev1 and flexvpn use ikev3 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 An IOS SSL VPN is configured to forward TCP ports. A remote user cannot access the corporate FTP site with a Web browser. What is a possible reason for the failure? A. The user\\’s FTP application is not supported. B. The user is connecting to an IOS VPN gateway configured in Thin Client Mode. C. The user is connecting to an IOS VPN gateway configured in Tunnel Mode. D. The user\\’s operating system is not supported. Correct Answer: B http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ssl-vpn-client/70664-IOSthinclient.html Thin-Client SSL VPN (Port Forwarding) A remote client must download a small, Java-based applet for secure access of TCP applications that use static port numbers. UDP is not supported. Examples include access to POP3, SMTP, IMAP, SSH, and Telnet. The user needs local administrative privileges because changes are made to files on the local machine. This method of SSL VPN does not work with applications that use dynamic port assignments, for example, several FTP applications.
QUESTION 18 Which protocol must be enabled on the inside interface to use cluster encryption in SSL VPN load balancing? A. TLS B. DTLS C. IKEv2 D. ISAKMP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19 An engineer is configuring SSL VPN for remote access. A real-time application that is sensitive to packet delays will be used. Which feature should the engineer confirm is enabled to avoid latency and bandwidth problems associated with SSL connections? A. DTLS B. DPD C. SVC D. IKEv2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20 A temporary worker must use clientless SSL VPN with an SSH plug-in, in order to access the console of an internal corporate server, the projects.xyz.com server. For security reasons, the network security auditor insists that the temporary user is restricted to the one internal corporate server, 10.0.4.18. You are the network engineer who is responsible for the network access of the temporary user. What should you do to restrict SSH access to the one projects.xyz.com server? A. Configure access-list temp_user_acl extended permit TCP any host 10.0.4.18 eq 22. B. Configure access-list temp_user_acl standard permit host 10.0.4.18 eq 22. C. Configure access-list temp_acl webtype permit url ssh://10.0.4.18. D. Configure a plug-in SSH bookmark for host 10.0.4.18, and disable network browsing on the clientless SSL VPN portal of the temporary worker. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21 Refer to the exhibit. Which VPN solution does this configuration represent?
A. Cisco AnyConnect B. IPsec C. L2TP D. SSL VPN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 Which two GDOI encryption keys are used within a GET VPN network? (Choose two.) A. key encryption key B. group encryption key C. user encryption key D. traffic encryption key Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23 Which Cisco adaptive security appliance command can be used to view the count of all active VPN sessions? A. show vpn-sessiondb summary B. show crypto ikev1 sa C. show vpn-sessiondb ratio encryption D. show iskamp sa detail E. show crypto protocol statistics all Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial configuration shown, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) crypto ipsec transform-set MY_TRANSFORM esp-aes 128 esp-sha-hmac! crypto ipsec profile MYPROFILE set transform-set MY_TRANSFORM ! interface Tunnel0 ip unnumbered GigabitEthernet1/1 tunnel source GigabitEthernet1/1 tunnel destination 192.168.2.200 tunnel mode ipsec ipv4 tunnel protection ipsec profile MYPROFILE! ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel0 A. The tunnel will use the routing protocol configured for GigabitEthemet 1/1 for all tunnel communication with the peer. B. The IP route statement to reach the remote network behind the DMVPN peer is incorrect, it should be ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 tunnel 0. C. This is an example of a static point-to-point VTI tunnel. D. The tunnel will use esp-sha-hmac encryption in ESP tunnel mode. E. The tunnel will use 128-bit AES encryption in ESP tunnel mode. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 25 Which option describes the purpose of the command show derived-config interface virtual-access 1? A. It verifies that the virtual access interface is cloned correctly with per-user attributes. B. It verifies that the virtual template created the tunnel interface. C. It verifies that the virtual access interface is of type Ethernet. D. It verifies that the virtual access interface is used to create the tunnel interface. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 What URL do you use to download a packet capture file in a format which can be used by a packet analyzer? A. ftp:///capture// B. https://// C. https:///admin/capture//pcap D. https:////pcap Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27 Which two statements about the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN solution are true? (Choose two.) A. When a client connects to the Cisco ASA WebVPN portal and tries to access HTTP resources through the URL bar, the client uses the local DNS to perform FQDN resolution. B. The rewriter enable command under the global webvpn configuration enables the rewriter functionality because that feature is disabled by default. C. A Cisco ASA with an AnyConnect Premium Peers license can simultaneously allow Clientless SSL VPN sessions and AnyConnect client sessions. D. Content rewriter functionality in the Clientless SSL VPN portal is not supported on Apple mobile devices. E. Clientless SSLVPN provides Layer 3 connectivity into the secured network. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 28 Which feature is enabled by the use of NHRP in a DMVPN network? A. host routing with Reverse Route Injection B. BGP multiaccess C. host to NBMA resolution D. EIGRP redistribution Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29 Which Cisco IOS VPN feature simplifies IPsec VPN configuration and design by using on- demand virtual access interfaces that are cloned from a virtual template configuration? A. GET VPN B. dynamic VTI C. static VTI D. GRE tunnels E. GRE over IPsec tunnels F. DMVPN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30 Which command clears all crypto configuration from a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance? A. clear configure crypto B. clear configure crypto ipsec C. clear crypto map D. clear crypto ikev2 sa Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 Which VPN feature allows remote access clients to print documents to local network printers? A. Reverse Route Injection B. split tunneling C. loopback addressing D. dynamic virtual tunnels Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32 Which technology can rate-limit the number of tunnels on a DMVPN hub when system utilization is above a specified percentage? A. NHRP Event Publisher B. interface state control C. CAC D. NHRP Authentication E. ip nhrp connect Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33 When initiating a new SSL or TLS session, the client receives the server SSL certificate and validates it. After validating the server certificate, what does the client use the certificate for? A. The client and server use the server public key to encrypt the SSL session data. B. The server creates a separate session key and sends it to the client. The client decrypts the session key by using the server public key. C. The client and server switch to a DH key exchange to establish a session key. D. The client generates a random session key, encrypts it with the server public key, and then sends it to the server. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34 Which three actions can be applied to a traffic class within a type inspect policy map? (Choose three.) A. drop B. priority C. log D. pass E. inspect F. reset Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 35 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is running DMVPN with EIGRP, when the administrator looks at the routing table on spoken 1 it displays a route to the hub only. Which command is missing on the hub router, which includes spoke 2 and spoke 3 in the spoke 1 routing table?
A. no inverse arp B. neighbor (ip address) C. no ip split-horizon egrp 1 D. redistribute static Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36 A company\\’s remote locations connect to data centers via MPLS. A new request requires that unicast traffic that exist the remote location be encrypted. Which no tunneled technology can be used to satisfy this requirement? A. SSL B. GET VPN C. DMVPN D. EzVPN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37 Which type of communication in a FlexVPN implementation uses an NHRP shortcut? A. spoke to hub B. spoke to spoke C. hub to spoke D. hub to hub Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38 Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken when Cisco AnyConnect cannot establish an IKEv2 connection, while SSL works fine? (Choose two.) A. Verify that the primary protocol on the client machine is set to IPsec. B. Verify that AnyConnect is enabled on the correct interface. C. Verify that the IKEv2 protocol is enabled on the group policy. D. Verify that ASDM and AnyConnect are not using the same port. E. Verify that SSL and IKEv2 certificates are not referencing the same trustpoint. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit. The IKEv2 tunnel between Router1 and Router2 is failing during session establishment. Which action will allow the session to establish correctly?
A. The address command on Router2 must be narrowed down to a /32 mask. B. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be switched. C. The pre-shared key must be altered to use only lowercase letters. D. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be the same. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40 Which three parameters are specified in the isakmp (IKEv1) policy? (Choose three.) A. the hashing algorithm B. the authentication method C. the lifetime D. the session key E. the transform-set F. the peer Correct Answer: ABC
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High Quality Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)
The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is unable to call the Cisco IP Video Phone. Assuming that the calling search space has been configured correctly, which of the these can cause this issue?
A. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered to a Cisco Telepresence Video Communication Server.
B. A multipoint control unit is required in order for the call to work.
C. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered as a SIP endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. H.323 is not supported.
D. URI dialing has not been configured on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 Profile 1 > CallSetupMode must be configured as a gateway since Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a gatekeeper functionality.
F. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is not registered as a SIP endpoint on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 needs to be registered as both SIP and H.323.
Correct Answer: C
An engineer is connecting a VISCA cable. What is the purpose of this cable?
A. to connect camera to codec
B. to connect camera to monitor
C. to connect camera to touch panel
D. to connect camera to network
Correct Answer: A
An engineer encounters video quality issues with an endpoint. To capture ongoing call statistics from the CLI, which command should the engineer use?
A. xStatus Call Feature Display
B. xStatus OutgoingVideoChannel Netstat 1
C. xStatus Diagnostics
D. xCommand Diagnose
Correct Answer: C
An engineer must ensure that a user can create content playlists for Digital Signs and Show and Share. Which Cisco Digital Media Suite component allows playlists to be created?
A. Cisco DMD
B. Cisco DMM
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco MXE
Correct Answer: B
Which two tools can be used to extract traces from a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? 210-065 dumps (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AD
A manager requires multiparty video meetings with presentation capability. Which endpoint meets the requirement assuming there is no centralized bridge?
A. Cisco SX20
B. Cisco DX650
C. Cisco 7800
D. Cisco Jabber
Correct Answer: D
Refer to the Exhibits, in order to create a scheduled or ad-hoc multipoint conference, which two tolls can be used? (Choose two)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
Correct Answer: BD
An administrator is troubleshooting an endpoint whose SIP Registration Status shows “Failed: 403 Forbidden” and must obtain information about the cause of the failure. To which two menu locations must an engineer navigate? (Choose two.)
A. Endpoint > Log Files > messages.log
B. Endpoint > Diagnostics > Log Files > all.log
C. VCS > Maintenance > Diagnostics > Incident Reporting > View
D. VCS > Status > logs > Configuration Log
E. VCS > Status > logs > Event Log
Correct Answer: DE
Which type of lighting is recommended for Cisco TelePresence immersive solutions?
Correct Answer: A
A Cisco EX60 is connected to the network, but users cannot make calls and the device is unregistered. The voice engineer configured the device on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two options are causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. SIP URI is not configured correctly.
B. H.323 parameters are not configured correctly.
C. IP address is in a different subnet.
D. No user is associated to a device.
E. SIP proxy is not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: DE
Which desktop endpoint support 802.3af PoE?
Correct Answer: D
An engineer is backing up a VCS configuration. Which two methods can be used? (Choose two.)
D. web administration
Correct Answer: BC
An engineer sees a video camera icon on the Cisco IP phone screen status line. Which meaning of this icon is true?
A. The Cisco VT camera is connected to the PC, and the PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone.
B. The Cisco IP phone has web access.
C. The Cisco IP phone is receiving a video call.
D. The Cisco IP phone is configured with video capabilities.
Correct Answer: D
A company just acquired a Cisco MCU 5300 for multi videoconferencing. The networking engineer must create a conference. To which tab does the engineer go to create a conference? 210-065 dumps
Correct Answer: B
In this tutorial the instruction `Go to Conferences > Move participants’ means click the Conferences link on the menu bar and then click the Move participants tab.
Which option is the Cisco recommended minimum viewing distance for a 52″ monitor installed in a video conferencing room?
A. 1.5 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 2.5 m
D. 2.0 m
Correct Answer: A
Which effect of the CLI set audio aec enable command on the immersive Cisco Telepresence system is true?
A. Echo cancellation is enabled.
B. Call economy quality feature is enabled.
C. Noise cancellation is enabled.
D. AEC audio codec is enabled.
Correct Answer: A
What is the process for resetting a Cisco VCS control appliance back to initial default configuration?
A. Push down and hold the reset button on the back of the VCS appliance for 10 seconds and power cycle the device.
B. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the defaults-reset command.
C. Log into the GUI interface as administrator, choose System Settings, select Restore, select Factory Reset.
D. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the factory-reset command.
Correct Answer: D
Which two Cisco TelePresence endpoints support hosting embedded multisite conferences? (Choose two.)
E. Jabber Video for Cisco TelePresence
Correct Answer: AB
For reference, the below endpoints support Multisite:
Which option is the Cisco recommended layout if cascading is being used?
A. Enhanced Continuous Presence
B. Full Participant
C. Continuous Presence
D. Active Speaker
Correct Answer: C
When an administrator schedules a conference, which three devices are part of the process? (Choose three.)
B. Cisco Prime Collaboration Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco Communications Manager
E. MCU appliance
F. Cisco TelePresence Content Server
Correct Answer: BDF
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Latest Microsoft MCSD 70-488 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q10)
You develop a reusable workflow on a development site by using SharePoint Designer.
The workflow must be made available to a test site on a different SharePoint environment.
You need to deploy and start the workflow on the test site by using Microsoft Visual Studio 2012.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
Select and Place:
Box 1 (SharePoint Designer): Use SharePoint Designer to save the workflow as a .wsp solution package.
Visual Studio allows you to import reusable workflows created in SharePoint Designer and convert them to code workflows for use in your SharePoint sites.
Box 2(Visual Studio): Upload the solution package to the desired site.
Box 3(Visual Studio): Use Visual Studio to Active the solution package.
After a solution package (.wsp) file is uploaded and activated on the target website (that is, the SharePoint site collection), the features that are contained in the package are installed and available for activation.
1. Creating a simple, reusable workflow in SharePoint Designer.
2. Exporting the SharePoint Designer reusable workflow to a .wsp file and into SharePoint.
3. Importing the .wsp file into Visual Studio by using the Import Reusable Workflow project.
4. Altering the workflow by adding code.
5. Using the imported workflow in a SharePoint site.
* When you create a declarative workflow in Microsoft SharePoint® Designer 2010, you can save the workflow as a template in a SharePoint solution package (.wsp) file. In some circumstances, you may need to import your workflow template into the Microsoft Visual Studio® 2010 development system, and repackage it as a Visual Studio project—for example, if you want to create a solution package that contains both a declarative workflow and custom-coded workflow activities.
* Visual Studio SharePoint workflow projects deploy just like other Visual Studio SharePoint projects.
A company’s IT department implements a Help Desk Ticketing system that involves workflow development by using SharePoint Designer and InfoPath. The Help Desk Ticket workflow involves multiple steps and tasks that have serial approvals of multiple users and groups with custom task email messages.
The Approver accidently rejects a workflow step, and the workflow has stopped. The Approver then corrects the step.
You need to continue the workflow to reflect the updated approval.
Which activity should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate action from the list of actions in the answer area.)
* Set Workflow Status
There is an action to Set Workflow Status under Core Actions, in both SharePoint 2013 Workflow platform and SharePoint 2010 Workflow platform.
You develop a SharePoint app to create an approval workflow for expense reports. The app must collect user input before starting the workflow.
You need to use ASP.NET forms in the workflow.
Which form type should you use?
A. Workflow input form
B. Workflow initiation form
C. Workflow task form
D. Workflow modification form
Correct Answer: B
You may want your workflow to collect information from the person who starts it, and then reference this information later in the workflow. For example, imagine that you are designing a workflow that assigns a document review task. In some workflows of this kind, it might make sense to always automatically assign the review task to the same participant and to always use the same formula for calculating the due date. But in your workflow, you want the person who manually starts the workflow to specify both the reviewer and the due date. You can set this up by adding custom fields to the workflow initiation form and requiring that the workflow be started manually.
You plan to create a workflow design by using Microsoft Visio 2013 and then import the design into SharePoint Designer 2013.
You need to ensure that you have repetition capability.
Which shape should you use?
B. Assign a Task
Correct Answer: D
Loops are a series of connected shapes that will execute as a loop, returning from the last shape in the series to the first, until a condition is satisfied.
Note: Workflows in SharePoint Designer 2013 now include the notions of stages, loops, and steps. The SharePoint 2013 Workflow template that is included in Visio 2013 also uses stages, loops, and steps as logical building blocks for creating a workflow
You plan to create a SharePoint Business Process Automation (BPA) project.
You need to process items for approval with the least amount of developer effort. 70-488 dumps
Which tool should you use?
A. Remote Event Receiver
B. Out-of-the-box workflow
C. SharePoint Designer workflow
D. Work Item Timer Job
Correct Answer: B
Workflows in SharePoint 2013 allow you to model and automate business processes. These business processes can be as simple as a document approval process with a single approver (shown in example below), as complex as customerfacing product catalog using web service calls and database support, or as formidable as virtually any structured business process, full of conditions, loops, user inputs, tasks, and custom actions.
Example: Simple SharePoint workflow
You need to create a workflow custom activity to use in a custom action in SharePoint by using Microsoft Visual Studio 2012.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
Select and Place:
Box 1 (Visual Studio): Add a new item named Workflow Custom Activity to the project.
Visual Studio 2012 now provides a “workflow custom activity” item type within SharePoint projects. You can use the item type to create a custom activity that you can then import as a custom action in SharePoint Designer 2013.
Box 2 (Visual Studio): Package the custom activity as a SharePoint solution package (.wsp) file.
Custom actions are packaged and deployed as SharePoint Features in SharePoint solution package (.wsp) files
Box 3: (Visual studio) Deploy the SharePoint solution package (.wsp) file.
After you create your custom workflow activity, you can then package and deploy it. After it is deployed, the custom activity can be consumed by SharePoint Designer 2013 as a custom action.
Box 4: Activate the feature
After a solution package (.wsp) file is uploaded and activated on the target website (that is, the SharePoint site collection), the features that are contained in the package are installed and available for activation. After the custom actions are activated, they are available for use in a workflow.
Box 5: Create a new custom action by using SharePoint Designer.
* SharePoint Designer provides a collection of workflow actions that are available through the Workflow Designer user interface (UI). Although the range of workflow actions that are included in SharePoint Designer) is extensive, it is nevertheless finite. In some cases, you may need to model a business process whose requirements are not met by the existing library of workflow actions that are available in SharePoint Designer. Recognizing that business processes often have specialized requirements, SharePoint 2013 lets you create custom workflow actions. You can develop these custom actions by using Visual Studio, and then package and deploy them to SharePoint. At that point, the custom action becomes available to workflow authors in SharePoint Designer, exactly as if it were among the library of existing actions.
Contoso uses a SharePoint site that contains subsites. Each subsite represents different projects. Each project site is based on a team site template and stores information and documents. Contoso has five teams: Manufacturing, Sales, Administration, Marketing, and IT.
You must create a different look and feel for each team site such that any visitor to the site can identify the team by looking at the colors, fonts, and background image of the site.
You need to create a different look and feel for each team.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Open Contoso Corporate Microsoft PowerPoint Slides Template, save the template as ContosoCorporate.master, and then upload it to the Theme Gallery.
B. From SharePoint Designer, go to Content Types. Right-click and select Content Type Settings.
C. Get a site background image for each team and upload it to the site collection images library. Then create a new master page for each team site by using the Master Page Gallery. Set the version to 15.
D. From the Web Designer Galleries, choose Composed Looks and create a new item for each team site. Specify the title, URL of the master page, theme, background image, and font schema file.
E. On the Site Settings page in the Look and Feel section, choose Change the look.
F. Create a new font XML schema with a font specification for each team.
Correct Answer: BCD
* Content types enable site users to quickly create specialized kinds of content by using the New Item or New Document command in a list or library. Content types provide site owners a way to make sure that that content is consistent across sites. Site owners can pre-configure specific details about the content when they set up content types for a site, list, or library.
* Define content types
If your group works with several types of files, such as worksheets, presentations, and documents, you can extend the functionality of your library by enabling and defining multiple content types. Content types add flexibility and consistency across multiple libraries. Each content type can specify a template and even workflow processes. The templates act as a starting point, for formatting and any boilerplate text and for properties that apply to the documents of that type, such as department name or contract number.
C: To map a master page to a SharePoint site
1. In Site Settings for the designated site, under the Look and Feel section, choose Master Page.
2. On Site Master Page Settings, select one of the two options for the Site Master Page or System Master Page sections:
2a. Inherit site master page from parent site Choose this option if you are configuring a child SharePoint site and want to use the parent master page.
2b. Specify a master page to be used by this site and all sites that inherit from it Choose this option if you want to map a specific master page to the site, or if you want to map a specific master page for administrative pages. A drop-down box named Default or All Channels is available for you, depending on your site or system configuration, so you can select a specific master page stored in the master page gallery. Select the desired master page from the drop-down box.
3. Choose OK.
* A Composed Look is made up of:
* This means we can package a master page with its CSS, color palettes, font palettes and background image and have it deployed in the enterprise. With Composed Looks, you can now offer your Power Users a list of branded looks and allow them to choose an appropriate look as well as giving them limited control to make changes to the colors, image or font. You could be providing the Composed Looks.
A user deploys a sandbox solution.
The user cannot activate the solution.
You need to ensure that the user can activate the solution.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Grant permission to the user to execute the solution.
B. Grant permission to the user to activate the solution.
C. Start the Microsoft SharePoint Foundation Sandboxed Code Service.
D. Start the PerformancePoint Services.
Correct Answer: BC
By default, sandboxed solutions are disabled. Enable sandboxed solutions on every application server on which you want to run sandboxed solutions.
To enable sandboxed solutions by using Central Administration
Verify that you have the following administrative credentials:
You must be a member of the Farm Administrators group on the computer that is running the SharePoint Central Administration Web site.
On the home page of the Central Administration Web site, in the System Settings section, click Manage services on server.
On the Services on Server page, in the Server box, select the server on which you want to enable sandboxed solutions.
In the Microsoft SharePoint Foundation Sandboxed Code Service row, in the Action column, clickStart.
Repeat steps 3 and 4 for each server on which you want to enable sandboxed solutions.
A company uses SharePoint for internal collaboration. SharePoint is deployed on a server farm with a single front-end server, a single application server, and a dedicated database server.
You review existing Web Parts that read from and write to SharePoint lists. You find the following code in one of the utility classes and notice memory leaks in the method.
You need to ensure that there are no memory leaks in the method.
What should you do?
A. Add a finally statement and include site.Dispose ().
B. Add site.Dispose() to the catch statement.
C. Add a finally statement and include siteCollection.Dispose ();
D. Add siteCollection.Dispose() to the catch statement.
Correct Answer: C
Need to manually dispose of the siteCollection instance. This can be done through a finally statement.
* Try and finally blocks or a using statement would be required to avoid potential leaks when you create a disposable object within a foreach block, as shown in the following code example. 70-488 dumps
SPWebApplication webApp = siteCollectionOuter.WebApplication;
SPSiteCollection siteCollections = webApp.Sites;
SPSite siteCollectionInner = null;
foreach (siteCollectionInner in siteCollections)
try //Should be first statement after foreach.
//Exception occurs here.
if(siteCollectionInner != null)
* Why Dispose?
Several of the Windows SharePoint Services objects, primarily the SPSite class and SPWeb class objects, are created as managed objects. However, these objects use unmanaged code and memory to perform the majority of their work. The managed part of the object is much smaller than the unmanaged part. Because the smaller managed part does not put memory pressure on the garbage collector, the garbage collector does not release the object from memory in a timely manner. The object’s use of a large amount of unmanaged memory can cause some of the unusual behaviors described earlier. Calling applications that work with IDisposable objects in Windows SharePoint Services must dispose of the objects when the applications finish using them. You should not rely on the garbage collector to release them from memory automatically.
You troubleshoot the sandbox solutions that your team builds.
You need to redeploy a sandbox solution. You also need to identify which process must be debugged.
Where should you redeploy the solution, and which process should you debug? (To answer, drag the appropriate statements to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each statement may be used once, more than once, or not at
all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
Select and Place:
Box 1: SPUCWorkerProcess.exe
* The Visual Studio debugger usually attaches to the Windows SharePoint Services process (w3wp.exe). If the project type lets you change the Sandboxed Solution property and its value is set to true, then the debugger attaches to a different process (SPUCWorkerProcess.exe).
* Why Sandboxed Solutions?
In WSS 3.0, solutions could be deployed only to the farm level. This meant that potentially harmful or destabilizing solutions could be deployed that affected the whole Web farm and all of the other site collections and applications that run under it. However, by using sandboxed solutions, you can deploy your solutions to a subarea of the farm, a specific site collection. To provide additional protection, the solution’s assembly is not loaded into the main IIS process (w3wp.exe).
Instead, it is loaded into a separate process (SPUCWorkerProcess.exe). This process is monitored and implements quotas and throttling to protect the farm from sandboxed solutions that perform harmful activities, such as running tight loops that consume CPU cycles.
Box 2: Solution Gallery
The solution gallery is a document library stored in the root Web of the SharePoint site. The solution gallery replaces site templates and supports solution packages. When a SharePoint solution package (.wsp) file is uploaded, it is processed as a sandboxed solution.
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