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070-463 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are the data steward for a Business Intelligence project.
You must identify duplicate rows stored in a SQL Server table and output discoveries to a CSV file. A Data Quality Services (DQS) knowledge base has been created to support this project.
You need to produce the CSV file with the least amount of development effort.
What should you do?
A. Create an Integration Services package and use a Data Profiling transform.
B. Create a custom .NET application based on the Knowledgebase class.
C. Create a data quality project.
D. Create a CLR stored procedure based on the Knowledgebase class.
E. Create a Master Data Services (MDS) business rule.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You manage a SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) environment.
A new application requires access to the product data that is available in the MDS repository.
You need to design a solution that gives the application access to the product data with the least amount of development effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a Subscription View in MDS.
B. Access the product entity tables in the MDS database directly.
C. Use SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) to extract the data and put it in a staging database.
D. Use change data capture on the product entity tables.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are creating a SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) model for a company.
The source data for the company is stored in a single table that contains the manager-tosubordinate relationships.
You need to create a hierarchy representing the organizational structure of the company.
Which hierarchy type should you use?
A. Organizational
B. Recursive
C. Non-Mandatory Explicit
D. Many-to-Many
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are completing the installation of the Data Quality Server component of SQL Server Data Quality Services (DQS).
You need to complete the post-installation configuration. 070-463 dumps
What should you do?
A. Run the DQSInstaller.exe command.
B. Install the data providers that are used for data refresh.
C. Install ADOMD.NET.
D. Run the dbimpexp.exe command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are creating a SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) model. This model is used to store a master list of products.
An attribute must be added to the Product entity to define the sales manager responsible for each product.
You need to create an attribute in the Product entity that prevents users from entering invalid sales manager values.
Which type of attribute should you create?
A. Recursive
B. Explicit
C. Domain-based
D. User-defined
E. Derived
F. Parent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are installing the Data Quality Client on user desktops.
You need to ensure that the prerequisite software components are installed.
Which components must be present to meet this goal? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SQL Server Management Studio
B. Internet Explorer 6.0 SP1 or later
C. Microsoft Silverlight 5
D. .NET Framework 3.5 SP1
E. .NET Framework 4.0
F. Microsoft Silverlight 4
G. SQL Server Data Tools
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 7
You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project by using the Project Deployment model.
The project contains many packages. It is deployed on a server named Development!. The project will be deployed to several servers that run SQL Server 2012.
The project accepts one required parameter. The data type of the parameter is a string.
A SQL Agent job is created that will call the master.dtsx package in the project. A job step is created for the SSIS package.
The job must pass the value of an SSIS Environment Variable to the project parameter.
The value of the Environment Variable must be configured differently on each server that runs SQL Server. The value of the Environment Variable must provide the server name to the project parameter.
You need to configure SSIS on the Development1 server to pass the Environment Variable to the package.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence by using SQL Server Management Studio? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
070-463 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-463 dumps
QUESTION 8
A new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project is deployed to the SSIS catalog.
To troubleshoot some data issues, you must output the data streaming through several data flows into text files for further analysis. You have the list of data flow package paths and identification strings of the various task components that must be analyzed.
You need to create these output files with the least amount of administrative and development effort.
Which three stored procedures should you execute in sequence? 070-463 dumps (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
070-463 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-463 dumps
QUESTION 9
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data into a data warehouse. You add an Execute SQL task to the control flow.
The task must execute a simple INSERT statement. The task has the following requirements:
– The INSERT statement must use the value of a string package variable. The variable name is StringVar.
– The Execute SQL task must use an OLE DB Connection Manager.
In the Parameter Mapping tab of the Execute SQL task, StringVar has been added as the only parameter.
You must configure the SQLStatement property of the Execute SQL task.
Which SQL statement should you use?
A. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES ($StringVar)
B. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (0)
C. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (@0)
D. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (?)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a Type 3 Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD).
You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic. 070-463 dumps
What should you use?
A. a Script component
B. an SCD component
C. an Aggregate component
D. a Merge component
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are installing SQL Server Data Quality Services (DQS).
You need to give users belonging to a specific Active Directory group access to the Data Quality Server.
Which SQL Server application should you use?
A. Data Quality Client with administrative credentials
B. SQL Server Configuration Manager with local administrative credentials
C. SQL Server Data Tools with local administrative permissions
D. SQL Server Management Studio with administrative credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables. The first table contains sales per month and the second table contains orders per day.
Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively.
You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables.
What should you do?
A. Join the two fact tables.
B. Merge the fact tables.
C. Create a time dimension that can join to both fact tables at their respective granularity.
D. Create a surrogate key for the time dimension.
Correct Answer: C

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70-595 dumps
QUESTION 1
You use BizTalk Server 2010 to send EDI purchase orders to three trading partners. All of the trading partners use the same version of the purchase order message but define custom codes for the product types. The trading partners confirm purchase order acknowledgements by email instead of through response messages. The standard purchase order schemas included with BizTalk do not include the custom product type codes for each trading partner. You need to ensure that each trading partners purchase order schema is the schema that is used for orders that are sent to them. What should you do?
A. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define an envelope for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the custom namespace you defined for each BizTalk schema.
B. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define a local host setting for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the custom namespace you defined for each BizTalk schema.
C. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define an envelope for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI messages.
D. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define a local host setting for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI messages.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A company tracks storage containers and integrates radio frequency identification (RFID) readers with a server shipping management system built on BizTalk Server 2010. You define a custom tag event named ContainerArrivedEvent. You use the RFID manager to add the SqlServerSink component to the RFID process. You need to ensure that the SqlServerSink component logs only the custom tag event. What should you specify for the EventTypes property?
A. ContainerArrivedEvent
B. the fully qualified assembly name
C. All
D. Generic
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are developing applications for BizTalk Server 2010. The application processes orders for two vendors. These vendors have different message formats for their orders. You define BizTalk schemas for both vendors in separate projects and name the projects VendorA and VendorB. You promote the OrderType property in the schema of VendorA and the PurchaseType property in the schema of VendorB. 70-595 dumps
Then you deploy the application. You need to log messages to disk for shoe orders for VendorA and bike orders for VendorB. What should you do?
A. Add a FILE send port with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes And VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
B. Add a FILE send port with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes Or VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
C. Add a send port group with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes Or VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
D. Add a send port group with the filter: VendorA.OrderType==Shoes And
VendorB.PurchaseType==Bikes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A supplier sends messages that they sign with a certificate to a BizTalk Server 2010 application. You need to ensure that the received messages are signed with the certificate. What should you do?
A. Use the XMLTransmit pipeline.
B. Use a custom pipeline that leverages the MIME/SMIME encoder component.
C. Use a custom pipeline that leverages the MIME/SMIME decoder component.
D. Use the XMLReceive pipeline.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution transmits messages to a suppliers FTP server. The solution uses an FTP send port. The transport URI points to the main FTP server location. The supplier needs to receive the message immediately if the connection with the main FTP server cannot be established. You need to enable transmission redirection to an alternative FTP server. What should you do?
A. Set the Retry count to 1. Set the Backup Transport Type to FTP and the Backup Transport URI to the alternative FTP server location.
B. Enable ordered delivery for the send port.
C. Set the Retry count to 0. Set the Backup Transport Type to FTP and the Backup Transport URI to the alternative FTP server location.
D. Enable failed message routing for the send port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A BizTalk Server 2010 application sends purchase orders. Current applications use an existing mail server to send mail. The purchase order application should use a distribution list that is managed by a new mail server. Company IT policy does not allow you to create a new host for the new mail server. You need to create a BizTalk port that sends orders to the email distribution list through the new mail server. What should you do?
A. Create an SMTP send port configured to send to the email distribution list. Create a filter on the send port with the SMTP.SMTPHost context property equal to the new mail server.
B. Create an SMTP send port configured to send to the email distribution list. Specify the name of the new mail server in Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) Manager.
C. Create an SMTP send port configured to send to the email distribution list. Override the current SMTP send handler settings by entering the new mail server in the SMTP server name field in the Handler Override section of the port.
D. Create a send port group with an SMTP send port configured to send to the email distribution list. Create a filter on the send port group with the SMTP.SMTPHost context property equal to the new mail server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
In a Microsoft Visual Studio solution, you include an existing shared BizTalk Server 2010 project that is used by more than one BizTalk application. You specify that the shared BizTalk project will be deployed to the same BizTalk application as the other BizTalk projects in the solution. During deployment of the BizTalk project from Visual Studio, you receive the following error: Failed to add resource(s). Resource (- Type=”System.BizTalk:BizTalkAssembly” -Luid=”Contoso.SharedComponent, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=c4b6d1ca34bb90c0″) is already in store and is either associated with another application or with another type. You need to deploy the projects of the solution that reference the shared BizTalk project without errors. What should you do?
A. Open Configuration Manager and clear the Deploy check box for all BizTalk projects. Then build and deploy the solution.
B. Use the BizTalk Administration console to import a copy of the MSI package of the shared component into every BizTalk application.
C. Use the BizTalk Administration console to export the assemblies as a Microsoft Windows Installer (MSI) package for the BizTalk solution.
D. Open Configuration Manager and clear the Deploy check box for the shared BizTalk project. Then build and deploy the solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are configuring a BizTalk Server 2010 environment with one server running Microsoft SQL Server for the BizTalk databases and Enterprise Single Sign-On (SSO) store. 70-595 dumps There are two BizTalk servers. All software has been installed. Both BizTalk servers will share a BizTalk group. You need to complete the installation in this environment. You start the BizTalk Server Configuration wizard on both BizTalk servers.
What should you do next?
A. On BizTalk Server 1, select and apply Basic Configuration. On BizTalk Server 2, select and apply Basic Configuration.
B. On BizTalk Server 1, select Custom Configuration. Create a new SSO system and BizTalk group on the server running SQL Server. On BizTalk Server 2, select Custom Configuration. Create a new SSO system and BizTalk group on the server running SQL Server.
C. On BizTalk Server 1, select Custom Configuration. Create a new SSO system and BizTalk group on the server running SQL Server. On BizTalk Server 2, select and apply Basic Configuration.
D. On BizTalk Server 1, select Custom Configuration. Create a new SSO system and BizTalk group on the server running SQL Server. On BizTalk Server 2, select Custom Configuration. Join the existing SSO system and BizTalk group.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution contains multiple applications. One of the applications sends EDI messages to trading partners. The trading partners are defined as parties in the BizTalk Administration console. You need to extract the binding and party information for only the EDI application in an XML file so that you can store that information in source code control. What should you do?
A. Create a binding file for one of the assemblies in the EDI application.
B. Create a binding file that contains the binding for the BizTalk group.
C. Create a binding file for the EDI application and include the party information.
D. Create a Microsoft Windows Installer (MSI) file for the EDI application and include the party information.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A BizTalk Server 2010 application contains an orchestration with one receive port and one send port. You evaluate the runtime behavior of the orchestration by viewing the promoted properties of any inbound and outbound messages of the orchestration. You need to modify the application so that you can view these promoted properties on the BizTalk Server Group Hub page. What should you do?
A. In the BizTalk Administration console, modify the orchestration properties. Under Track Message Properties, select the check boxes for incoming and outgoing messages.
B. In the BizTalk Administration console, modify the orchestration properties. Under Track Message Bodies, select Before orchestration processing and After orchestration processing.
C. In Orchestration Designer, change the Report To Analyst property to True. Redeploy the orchestration. Create filters on the receive port receive location that evaluate the messages promoted properties.
D. In Orchestration Designer, change the Type Modifier property to Public. Redeploy the orchestration.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A BizTalk Server 2010 messaging solution processes XML messages. The solution uses a single Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) activity and BAM tracking profile to extract content values from the message. Some of the values are bound to a receive port when the message is received. The other values are bound to a send port when the message is transmitted. At run time you find out that instead of one, two records are created in the BAM database for each processed message. One record contains only the values bound to the receive port. The second record contains only the values bound to the send port. You need to ensure that only one record is created that contains all the values for every message. What should you do?
A. Add a continuation and continuation ID to the tracking profile.
B. In the tracking profile, associate a unique value from the message payload to the ActivityID field.
C. Add a relationship to the tracking profile.
D. Add a document reference URL to the tracking profile.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are developing a BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration. In the Business Rule Composer, you create and save a policy named BonusPolicy that calculates an employees bonus based on year- to-date sales. You add a Call Rules shape to the orchestration. In the BizTalk Orchestration Designer, BonusPolicy is not listed in the menu of available policies to call. You need to make the policy available in the Orchestration Designer. What should you do?
A. Use the Rule Engine Deployment Wizard to export BonusPolicy.
B. In the Business Rules Composer, publish BonusPolicy.
C. In the Business Rules Composer, create a vocabulary with a definition that references the XML schema used to evaluate BonusPolicy. Publish the vocabulary.
D. In the Business Rules Composer, use the Rule Store menu and load policies from the BizTalkRuleEngineDb database.
Correct Answer: B

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210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? (Choose two.)
A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules.
B. They cannot track connections.
C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.
D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature.
E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
How can you detect a false negative on an IPS?
A. View the alert on the IPS.
B. Review the IPS log.
C. Review the IPS console.
D. Use a third-party system to perform penetration testing.
E. Use a third-party to audit the next-generation firewall rules.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
B. TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
C. TACACS supports per-command authorization.
D. TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
E. TACACS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
F. TACACS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments? 210-260 dumps
A. It forwards email requests to an external signature engine.
B. It scans inbound email messages for known bad URLs.
C. It sends the traffic through a file policy.
D. It sends an alert to the administrator to verify suspicious email messages.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which statement about the given configuration is true?
A. The single-connection command causes the device to establish one connection for all TACACS transactions.
B. The single-connection command causes the device to process one TACACS request and then move to the next server.
C. The timeout command causes the device to move to the next server after 20 seconds of TACACS inactivity.
D. The router communicates with the NAS on the default port, TCP 1645.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 7
What can the SMTP preprocessor in FirePOWER normalize?
A. It can extract and decode email attachments in client to server traffic.
B. It can look up the email sender.
C. It compares known threats to the email sender.
D. It can forward the SMTP traffic to an email filter server.
E. It uses the Traffic Anomaly Detector.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
While troubleshooting site-to-site VPN, you issued the show crypto ipsec sa command. What does the given output show?
A. IPSec Phase 2 is established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
B. ISAKMP security associations are established between 10.1.1.5 and 10.1.1.1.
C. IKE version 2 security associations are established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
D. IPSec Phase 2 is down due to a mismatch between encrypted and decrypted packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDoS attack?
A. botnet
B. Trojan horse
C. virus
D. adware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In the router ospf 200 command, what does the value 200 stand for? 210-260 dumps
A. process ID
B. area ID
C. administrative distance value
D. ABR ID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is example of social engineering
A. Gaining access to a building through an unlocked door.
B. something about inserting a random flash drive.
C. gaining access to server room by posing as IT
D. Watching other user put in username and password (something around there)
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSM
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 070-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As
070-410 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create a shared folder. The shared folder will have a quota limit. You discover that when you run the New Share Wizard, you cannot select the SMB Share Advanced option. You need to ensure that you can use SMB Share – Advanced to create the new share. What should you do on Server1 before you run the New Share Wizard?
A. Configure the Advanced system settings.
B. Run the Install-WindowsFeaturecmdlet.
C. Run the Set-SmbSharecmdlet.
D. Install the Share and Storage Management tool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that has the Print and Document Services server role installed. You need to provide users with the ability to manage print jobs on Server1 by using a web browser.
What should you do?
A. Start the Computer Browser service and set the service to start automatically.
B. Install the LPD Service role service.
C. Install the Internet Printing role service.
D. Start the Printer Extensions and Notifications service and set the service to start automatically.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You try to install the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 Features feature on Server1, but the installation fails repeatedly. You need to ensure that the feature can be installed on Server1. What should you do?
A. Install the Web Server (IIS) server role.
B. Run the Add-WindowsPackagecmdlet.
C. Run the Add-AppxProvisionedPackagecmdlet.
D. Connect Server1 to the Internet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. A one-way external trust exists between contoso.com and adatum.com. 070-410 dumps Adatum.com contains a universal group named Group1. You need to prevent Group1 from being used to provide access to the resources in contoso.com. What should you do?
A. Modify the Managed By settings of Group1.
B. Modify the Allowed to Authenticate permissions in adatum.com.
C. Change the type of Group1 to distribution.
D. Modify the name of Group1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
VM1 has several snapshots. You need to modify the snapshot file location of VM1. What should you do?
A. Right-click VM1, and then click Export…
B. Modify the Hyper-V settings.
C. Delete the existing snapshots, and then modify the settings of VM1.
D. Shut down VM1, and then modify the settings of VM1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Served, and Server3. You create a server group named ServerGroup1. You discover the error message shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-410 dumps
You need to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely by using Server Manager. What should you do?
A. On DC1, run the Enable-PSSessionConfiguration cmdlet.
B. On Server2, run the Add-Computer cmdlet.
C. On Server2/ modify the membership of the Remote Management Users group.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, add a computer account named Server2, and then restart Server2.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Your company hires 500 temporary employees for the summer. The human resources department gives you a Microsoft Excel document that contains a list of the temporary employees. You need to automate the creation of user accounts for the 500 temporary employees. Which tool or tools should you use?
A. The Set-ADUsercmdlet and the Add-Member cmdlet
B. The Import-CSV cmdlet and the New-ADUsercmdlet
C. ADSI Edit
D. Active Directory Users and Computers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. All servers runs Windows Server 2012 R2.The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. Both domain controllers are virtual machines on a HyperV host. You plan to create a cloned domain controller named DC3 from an image of DC1. You need to ensure that you can clone DC1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Add the computer account of DC1 to the Cloneable Domain Controllers group.
B. Create a DCCIoneConfig.xml file on DC1.
C. Add the computer account of DC3 to the Cloneable Domain Controllers group.
D. Run the Enable-AdOptionalFeaturecmdlet.
E. Modify the contents of the DefaultDCCIoneAllowList.xml file on DC1.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. A one-way external trust exists between contoso.com and adatum.com. 070-410 dumps Adatum.com contains a universal group named Group1. You need to prevent Group1 from being used to provide access to the resources in contoso.com. What should you do?
A. Change the scope of Group1 to domain local.
B. Modify the Allowed to Authenticate permissions in adatum.com.
C. Enable SID quarantine on the trust between contoso.com and adatum.com.
D. Modify the Allowed to Authenticate permissions in contoso.com.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 user accounts that reside in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can link and unlink Group Policy objects (GPOs) to 0U1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1. What should you do?
A. Add User1 to the Group Policy Creator Owners group.
B. Run the Set-GPPermissioncmdiet.
C. Modify the permission on the \\Contoso.com\SYSVOL\Contoso.com\Policies folder.
D. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on OU1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You work as a senior administrator at Microsoft.com. The Microsoft.com network consists of a single domain named Microsoft.com. All servers on the Microsoft.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing storage pools.
Which of the following are TRUE with regards to storage pools?
A. It allows you to group physical disks into one or more containers.
B. It prevents you from grouping physical disks into one or more containers.
C. It allows you to easily add storage with minor impact on users.
D. It allows you to easily add storage without impacting users.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and corp.contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and are configured as global catalog servers. 070-410 dumps The corp.contoso.com domain contains a domain controller named DC1. You need to disable the global catalog on DC1. What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the properties of the DC1 computer account.
B. From Active Directory Administrative Center, modify the properties of the DC1 computer account.
C. From Active Directory Sites and Services, modify the NTDS Settings of the DC1 server object.
D. From Active Directory Domains and Trusts, modify the properties of the corp.contoso.com domain.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge
Exam Name: SMB Specialization for Account Managers
Exam Code: 700-505
Total Questions: 50 Q&As
700-505 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which Cisco Partner Sales Tool provides a single searchable location for sales guidance and technical details to help differentiate Cisco solutions from the competition?
A. Cisco Commerce Workspace
B. Competitive Portal
C. Quick Product Reference Guide
D. Cisco Discovery Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which three statements about the Cisco ISR G2 security solutions are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco ISR G2 security should only be deployed after a customer has rejected deploying Cisco ASA security.
B. Web Security Connected is delivered as a service module.
C. Software upgrades and reboots are needed to install security licenses.
D. Web Security Connected integrates with the Cisco ASA firewalls and the Cisco AnyConnect secure mobility client.
E. Cisco IPS network module can be added to the Cisco 2900 and 3900 Series routers.
F. Software licenses for security services include; IPsec/SSL VPN, Firewall, IPS.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 3
Which two options are Cisco Telepresence multipurpose endpoint solutions for small and midsizebusiness? 700-505 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Third-party videoconferencing endpoint
B. Cisco MX200
C. Cisco VCS
D. Cisco Profile 42
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Which three options are benefits that a customer can achieve by implementing a Cisco borderless wiredwireless solution?
(Choose three.)
A. Automatically provision SSIDs based on VLAN ID
B. Allow more than 50 users per access point to stream video content.
C. Determine the number of devices and users on the network.
D. Enforce policies to manage network access and keep data secure.
E. Network scalability to meet increased traffic and growing number of devices.
F. Prevent non-authorized devices from seeing SSIDs.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco series switch is stackable and provides solid baseline switching?
A. 200 Series
B. 300 Series
C. 500 Series
D. 100 Series
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which incentive program gives an up-front discount to partners with registered opportunities?
A. Cisco Partner Incentive Program
B. Value Incentive Program
C. Solution Incentive Program
D. Opportunity Incentive Program
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two products belong to the Cisco Data Center portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C220
B. Cisco WLC 2504
C. Cisco SVC 320
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which two IT solution characteristics do small and midsize business customers prefer? (Choose two)
A. simple devices that work well together right out of the box
B. enterprise-grade functionality; complexity is not a concern
C. flexibility; devices can be added easily in the future
D. solutions that will increase employee morale
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
700-505 dumps Which Cisco Catalyst model should you recommend to a customer that is considered a bargain buyer?
A. 2960
B. 3750
C. 300
D. 1900
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three options are customer benefits of implementing a Cisco Borderless switching solution? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree
B. Smart Install
C. AutoSmartPorts
D. Smart CallHome
E. Solar-powered
F. Uninterruptable power
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 11
Which option is the back-end security ecosystem that detects threat activity, researches and analyzes those threats: and provides real-time updates along with best practices to allow organizations to be informed and protected?
A. Threat Operation Center
B. Secure Infrastructure Optimization
C. Monitor Analysis Response System
D. Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
In which two ways can Cisco solutions help resolve customer business challenges? (Choose two.)
A. by supporting BYOD and increased mobility
B. by providing a multisystem infrastructure that must be monitored and maintained by the IT staff
C. by providing improved collaboration and communication tools
D. by providing a complex borderless solution
Correct Answer: AC

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Specialist: Microsoft Azure
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Exam Code: 70-534
Total Questions: 249 Q&As
70-534 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a soluton for publishing one of the company websites to Azure and confguring it for remote debugging.
Which two actons should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the soluton.
A. From Visual Studio, atach the debugger to the soluton.
B. Set the applicaton logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
C. Set the Web Server logging level to Informaton and enable logging.
D. Set the Web Server logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
E. From Visual Studio, confgure the site to enable Debugger Ataching and then publish the site.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
You are designing an Azure development environment. Team members learn Azure development techniques by training in the development environment.
The development environment must auto scale and load balance additional virtual machine (VM) instances. You need to recommend the most cost-effective compute-instance size that allows team members to work with Azure in the development environment.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Al standardVM Instance
B. Azure A2 basic VM Instance
C. Azure A3 basic VM Instance
D. Azure A9 standard VM Instance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are designing an Azure application that will use a worker role. The worker role will create temporary files.
You need to minimize storage transaction charges.
Where should you create the files?
A. In Azure local storage
B. In Azure Storage page blobs
C. On an Azure Drive
D. In Azure Storage block blobs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are running a Linux guest in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). 70-534 dumps You must run a daily maintenance task. The maintenance task requires native BASH commands.
You need to configure Azure Automation to perform this task.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an automation account.
B. Create an Orchestrator runbook.
C. Create an asset credential.
D. Run the Invoke-Workflow Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Import the SSH PowerShell Module.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 5
You need to confgure the deployment of the storage analysis applicaton.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Mobile Service.
B. Confgure the deployment from source control.
C. Add a new deployment slot.
D. Turn on contnuous integraton.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You need to design a data storage strategy for each applicaton.
In the table below, identfy the strategy that you should use for each applicaton. Make only one selecton in each column.
Hot Area:
70-534 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-534 dumps
QUESTION 7
An application currently resides on an on-premises virtual machine that has 2 CPU cores 4 GB of RAM 20 GB of hard disk space and a 10 megabit/second network connection.
You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You have the following requirements:
You must not make changes to the application.
You must minimize the costs for hosting the application.
You need to recommend the appropriate virtual machine instance type.
Which virtual machine tier should you recommend?
A. Network Optimized (A Series)
B. General Purpose Compute Basic Tier (A Series)
C. General Purpose Compute Standard Tier (A Series)
D. Optimized Compute (D Series)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic locations. The service locations may change.
You must minimize the cost of communication between services.
You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You need to design the system that alerts project managers to data changes in the contractor informaton app. 70-534 dumps
Which service should you use?
A. Azure Mobile Service
B. Azure Service Bus Message Queueing
C. Azure Queue Messaging
D. Azure Notfcaton Hub
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are planning an upgrade strategy for an existing Azure application. Multiple instances of the application run in Azure. The management team is concerned about application downtime due to a business service level agreement (SLA).
You are evaluating which change in your environment will require downtime. You need to identify the changes to the environment that will force downtime.
Which change always requires downtime?
A. Adding an HTTPS endpoint to a web role
B. Upgrading the hosted service by deploying a new package
C. Changing the value of a configuration setting
D. Changing the virtual machine size
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You need to prepare the implementaton of data storage for the contractor informaton app.
What should you?
A. Create a storage account and implement multple data parttons.
B. Create a Cloud Service and a Mobile Service. Implement Entty Group transactons.
C. Create a Cloud Service and a Deployment group. Implement Entty Group transactons.
D. Create a Deployment group and a Mobile Service. Implement multple data parttons.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You are designing an Azure web application.
All users must authenticate by using Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) credentials. You need to recommend an approach to enable single sign-on to the application for domain-authenticated users. Which two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Forms authentication to generate claims.
B. Use the SQL membership provider in the web application.
C. Use Windows Identity Foundation in the web application.
D. Use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to generate claims.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: A+
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam
Exam Code: 220-901
Total Questions: 296 Q&As
220-901 dumps
QUESTION 1
A user notices the printer that is used for printing global shipper’s labels is missing columns in the printed labels. The special label stock is new and appears to be fine. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST when troubleshooting this problem?
A. Remove any stuck labels from the paper path
B. Clean the pickup rollers and check them for wear
C. Clean the print head with approved materials
D. Replace and realign the print head
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A technician is tasked with upgrading the hard drives of a high-end workstation to SSD. The drives must be configured in a RAID array, but the RAID card does not support SSD. Which of the following would the technician verify in order to use the new drives?
A. Controller firmware
B. Power requirements
C. File system type
D. System BIOS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is required during the installation of a digitizer?
A. Must be connected to the Internet
B. Must be cleaned
C. Must have the latest software installed
D. Must be calibrated
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A technician is building a new PC and notices that it has 8 DIMM sockets labeled 0 through 7. 220-901 dumps Four are white and four are blue. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Install the memory in the four white slots
B. Install the memory in the four blue slots
C. Consult the motherboard documentation
D. Install the memory in slots 0 through 3
E. Fill all slots with memory
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Drag the components from the list and place them in correct devices.
220-901 dumps
Correct Answer:
220-901 dumps
QUESTION 6
The Tower of Hanoi is MOST likely configured in a system which implements:
A. a high RPM drives.
B. a tape drive.
C. an externally attached storage.
D. a RAID configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following devices is primarily intended to provide 24/7 diagnostic and biometric data regarding the user?
A. Fitness monitor
B. e-Reader
C. Smartwatch
D. Smartphone
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an advantage of using static IP addresses for a business?
A. High availability
B. Simplifies IP management
C. Lower security risk
D. Scalability for upgrades
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A technician is installing a wireless router to be used as an access point. The company firewall will assign IP addresses to devices on the wireless network. 220-901 dumps Which of the following settings does the technician need to disable on the wireless router to accomplish this?
A. NAT
B. DMZ
C. PAT
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A SOHO is considering a purchase of several printers that will facilitate printing on both sides of the medi
A. Which of the following optional add-ons will provide this functionality?
B. Collate
C. Duplex
D. Fast draft
E. Paper type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is used to facilitate communications with a user’s smartphone in order to make purchases and payments by proximity?
A. Bluetooth
B. IR
C. NFC
D. WPS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A technician needs to set up a VPN for a small office. To ensure the network traffic is routed to the correct machine, which of the following MUST the technician do on the router to accommodate this?
A. Port forwarding
B. Port redundancy
C. Port triggering
D. Port selection
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Some routers have been configured with default routes. 100-105 dumps What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
100-105 dumps
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 8
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?
A. half-duplex operation
B. broadcast storms
C. network segmentation
D. multicasting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two.)
A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface.
B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface.
C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets.
D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic.
E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access list.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?
A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19
B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0
C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0
D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0
E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0
F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?
A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address
B. allows remote management of the switch
C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Exam Code: 300-101
Total Questions: 424 Q&As
300-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
300-101 dumps Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node? 300-101 dumps
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections?
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
How is authentication handled with OSPFv3?
A. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by SHA-1 authentication.
B. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by MD5 authentication
C. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv6 IPsec
D. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv4 IPsec
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. 300-101 dumps The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Voice over IP (VoIP). The system sends UDP datagrams containing the voice data between communicating hosts. When areas of the network become busy, some of the datagrams arrive at their destination out of order. What happens when this occurs?
A. UDP will send an ICMP Information request message to the source host.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order in which they arrive.
C. UDP will drop the datagrams that arrive out of order.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data into the …
Correct Answer: B

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[2017 New Cisco Dumps] Update Free Cisco 200-105 Dumps Latest PDF Training Resources And VCE Youtube Demo

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As

QUESTION 1
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command? 200-105 dumps
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?
A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? 200-105 dumps (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-105 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 9
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
A. To identify applications causing congestion
B. To authorize user network access
C. To report and alert link up / down instances
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 11
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? 200-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 12
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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