Latest CompTIA A+ 220-802 Dumps, real and effective 220-802 exam questions and Answers

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Latest effective CompTIA A+ 220-802 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
An IR printer stops working for half of an office while the other half is able to print. Which of the following should be
checked FIRST?
A. Proper lighting
B. Paper levels
C. Physical obstructions
D. Printer share name
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A user sent an email requesting that a technician check if a computer is on and connected to the Internet so the user
can login from home. Which of the following commands in the command prompt would a technician use to verify if the
computer is on and connected without having to go to the computer?
A. NSLOOKUP
B. NETSTAT
C. PING
D. IPCONFIG
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
A small business owner is looking to assign users to a Windows group level. They have the following requirements for
these users, and stress that they should receive no more privileges than necessary:
The users should not be able to change passwords for higher level accounts.
The users need the ability to install software.
The users cannot create new accounts for others.
Which of the following group levels will BEST meet these needs?
A. Remote Desktop Users
B. Power Users
C. Standard Users
D. Administrators
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
In iOS, which of the following settings would need to be configured for ActiveSync?
A. Mail, Contacts, and Calendars
B. Music and Videos
C. Phone and Messages
D. Notifications and Location Services
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Mike, a technician, is getting ready to upgrade the graphics card in a customer\\’s computer with a performance PCIe
graphics card. The customer has verified that she has a 16x PCIe slot on her motherboard. Which of the following may
also need to be upgraded?
A. RAM
B. Motherboard
C. Power supply
D. Processor
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
A technician needs to use a command line tool to determine the network name and the IP address of a resource. Which
of the following command line tools will provide an IP address when given a name?
A. verify
B. Tracert
C. Ipconfig
D. Nslookup
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
A technician installs a new graphics card that supports high resolutions. The technician sets the resolution to the highest
setting and then the monitor displays no video. The technician hits the enter key to exit and nothing happens. After a
reboot, no video appears after the operating system loads. Which of the following would the technician perform NEXT?
A. Reseat the graphics card in a different slot
B. Update the graphics card driver
C. Reinstall the operating system
D. Change the resolution in Safe Mode
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
A technician is having boot issues with a newly built PC, and notices the following jumper configurations for each PATA
device:
HARD DRIVE. MASTER OPTICAL DRIVE. CABLE SELECT
Which of the following jumper configurations should be used instead?
A. HDD. Cable Select; Optical Drive. Master
B. HDD. Cable Select; Optical Drive. Cable Select
C. HDD. Slave; Optical Drive. Slave
D. HDD. Master; Optical Drive. Master
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which of the following is one of the major differences between a new tablet and a new laptop computer?
A. Tablet has no field serviceable parts.
B. Laptop has less field functionality.
C. Tablet has faster Ethernet capability.
D. Laptops have slower responsiveness than tablets.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
A technician is taking apart a laptop in order to replace an internal part. During this process, which of the following
represents a best practice?
A. Only perform the work on a plastic counter top
B. Never use a power tool to remove screws from the case
C. Label the screws according to where they came from
D. When working on the bottom of a laptop, always leave the screen open
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Which of the following commands is used to map a network drive?
A. NBTSTAT
B. NET USE
C. NETMAP
D. NETSTAT
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
A night shift employee constantly fails to logoff at the end of their shift. The employee on the next shift regularly does not
bother to log in because they are not prompted to do so. Which of the following actions would be BEST for the
technician to do to correct this issue?
A. Write up each employee every time the login and logoff policy is ignored.
B. Have each employee report to their supervisor at the end of their shift.
C. Set the computer to restart after each employee\\’s shift.
D. Educate employees to log off within an hour of their shift.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
A technician needs to create a new folder from the command line on the root of the C. drive. Which of the following is
the correct command to use?
A. CD
B. MD
C. PUSHD
D. RD
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 14
A user reports that the laptop\\’s screen flickers and then goes black. When connecting to an external monitor the
operating system desktop is displayed. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A. Monitor function key
B. Resolution is set too low
C. Inverter board
D. Display adapter drivers
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
Which of the following actions can Power Users perform?
A. Create local users accounts
B. Backup the operating system and system files
C. Install computer applications that require administrative privileges
D. Modify any local user account
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 16
A technician is setting up a wired SOHO network for a client. The client would like to ensure that unauthorized PCs are
not easily able to communicate on the network. Which of the following can the technician do?
A. Enable MAC filtering
B. Encrypt passwords
C. Disable SSID
D. Disable DHCP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
When setting up a new wireless router, which of the following actions should the technician take FIRST in order to
secure the network? (Select TWO).
A. Disable unused ports
B. Change the SSID
C. Position the antennas to prevent outside access
D. Enable MAC filtering
E. Change the default user name
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 18
Which of the following allows a user to enable XP mode?
A. Windows Vista Home Premium
B. Windows 7 Professional
C. Windows 7 Home Premium
D. Windows Vista Ultimate
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
A technician encounters a PC where they can hear the power supply fan running, but the system is not booting up and
there is no display. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes? (Select TWO).
A. Bad PCI card
B. Bad Motherboard
C. Bad RAM
D. Bad boot.ini file
E. Bad Power Supply
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 20
A user has a work laptop configured with a static IP. The user wants to be able to take the laptop home and connect it to
their router which uses DHCP. However, the user does not want to manually change their settings every day. Which of
the following is the BEST step the user could take to make this possible?
A. Setup a VPN on the laptop to store the work IP settings.
B. Use the Ethernet port at work and only use Wi-Fi while at home.
C. Install an additional NIC in the laptop to access the home network.
D. Place the static IP in the alternative field while using DHCP.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 21
A small business owner is concerned about any non-business owned devices being connected to their network. Which
of the following actions would be the MOST secure way to ensure that only business owned devices can connect?
A. Enable MAC filtering on the router
B. Remove all extra patch cables from open ports
C. Secure the router and switches in a locked room
D. Disable the DHCP service on the router
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 22
A technician needs to change the minimum password length to 8 characters to make it more secure. Which of the
following system settings should the technician configure?
A. Windows Firewall
B. Windows Security Center
C. Local Security Policy
D. System Configuration
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 23
A wireless network is experiencing intermittent connectivity. Which of the following would BEST resolve this issue?
A. Enable MAC filtering
B. Change broadcast channel
C. Enable wireless encryption
D. Disable SSID broadcasting
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
An employee receives a phone call inquiring about company information. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Phishing
B. Social engineering
C. Shoulder surfing
D. Rootkits
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 25
A user, Ann, reports that she suspects her workstation has malware. Joe, the technician, confirms malware exists and
starts the process of removing the malware. Which of the following is the FIRST step he should take in removing the
malware?
A. Disable antivirus
B. Disable system restore
C. Enable hard drive encryption
D. Format the hard drive
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 26
A senior technician requests a diagnostic tool for checking external ports and connectors on computers and laptops.
Which of the following tools would BEST accomplish this task?
A. Wireless locator
B. Corona wire
C. Toner probe
D. Loopback plugs
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 27
A printer has been repurposed to another part of the building. When configured to work with the new department, it
intermittently prints and at times prints unrequested jobs. The cable tester reveals the Ethernet cable is properly
configured. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue?
A. Incorrect driver
B. IP conflict
C. Slow transfer speeds
D. Limited connectivity
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 28
Which of the following allows a Windows 7 remote user to edit a file offline then automatically update the changes when
back in the office?
A. Windows Defender
B. Sync Center
C. Windows Aero
D. HomeGroup
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 29
An administrator wishes to prevent users from accessing unattended computers in other departments. Which of the
following would BEST accomplish this?
A. Use a roaming profile using domain credentials.
B. Implement event monitoring of user logins on every PC.
C. Enforce a password-protected screensaver after five minutes of inactivity.
D. Use a common login and password for multiple users based upon department.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 30
Ann reports that upon booting up her workstation the screen says that no boot device is found. She also reports that she
hears a faint clicking noise from the workstation. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. The hard drive has failed.
B. The CMOS battery needs to be replaced.
C. The CPU fan has failed.
D. The sound card is incorrectly cabled.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
Which of the following allows a user to pinch zoom on an Android device?
A. Accelerometer
B. Micro USB port
C. Multi-touch D. A trackball
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 32
Ann, a small business owner, would like to implement wireless networking for her business but wants to be sure the
wireless is ONLY accessible from within her business\\’ premises.
Which of the following would BEST accomplish this?
A. Disabling SSID broadcast to ensure that only employees know the SSID
B. Using unidirectional antennas and reducing radio power levels appropriately
C. Assigning DHCP addresses that expire after a shorter period of time
D. Using omni-directional antennas and reducing radio power levels appropriately
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 33
A user has reported a file permissions issue to the network administrator. The administrator tries to recreate the problem
on their computer but has no trouble accessing the file. Which of the following BEST describes what is occurring?
A. The user did not taken ownership of the file from the server.
B. The user is logged in using the wrong local profile.
C. The user is not in the appropriate group to have access to the file.
D. The user has been granted “read only” access to the file.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 34
A technician has developed training material to ensure employees physically secure company laptops from being stolen.
Which of the following is a preventative directive that MUST be included in the training material?
A. RFID tags must be attached to all laptops and receivers to all doors to alert when a laptop leaves the designated
area.
B. Biometrics devices must be installed on all laptops.
C. All computers must be equipped with privacy filters.
D. Employees must remember to lock their office doors when leaving even for a short period of time.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 35
Which of the following describes when a child folder has the same permissions as its parent folder?
A. Single sign-on
B. Propagation
C. Administrative share
D. Inheritance
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 36
Which of the following security threats does NOT use software to extract sensitive information or credentials?
A. Grayware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Malware
D. Man-in-the-Middle exploits
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 37
A SOHO location is being remodeled and the users are concerned about unauthorized traffic on their network during the
remodel. The WLAN needs to be able to allow various types of devices to securely connect 24 hours a day while
requiring the least amount of overhead to manage. Which of the following security implementations would MOST likely
be implemented?
A. Setting encryption
B. Resetting all user-names and passwords
C. Assign static IP addresses
D. Enable MAC filtering
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 38
Ann, the network administrator, is notified that the server is responding very slowly. Upon entering the server room, she
notices one of the drives in a RAID1 array has failed. Which of the following would BEST restore full functionality of the
server while preserving redundancy?
A. Use Disk Management to remove the RAID array and use the drive standalone.
B. Use the RAID configuration tool to remove the RAID array and use the drive standalone.
C. Remove the failed drive in device manager and continue operating.
D. Replace the drive with a new drive and repair the RAID.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
A user has a nonfunctional computer that has two hard drives. The user needs to retrieve information from one of the
drives. Which of the following would be used?
A. Reformat bad hard drives
B. External enclosure
C. Reformat all hard drives
D. CHKDSK along with DEFRAG utility
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
Which of the following operating systems supports full usage of 8GB DDR3 RAM?
A. Windows 7 Professional x86
B. Windows 7 Home Premium x64
C. Windows XP Professional
D. Windows Vista Home Premium x86
Correct Answer: B

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Cisco CCDP 300-320 Practice Exam Questions,300-320 pdf | 100% Free

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Latest effective Cisco 300-320 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
When designing data centers for multitenancy, which two benefits are provided by the implementation of VSAN and
zoning? (choose two)
A. VSAN provides a means of restricting visibility and connectivity among devices connected to a zone
B. VSANs have their own set of services and address space, which prevents an issue in one VSAN from affecting
others
C. Zones provide the ability to create many logical SAN fabrics on a single Cisco MDS 9100 family switch
D. VSANs and zones use separate fabrics
E. Zones allow an administrator to control which initiators can see which targets
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 2
While configuring a QoS policy, analysis of the switching infrastructure indicates that the switches support 1P3Q3T
egress queuing. Which option describes the egress queuing in the infrastructure?
A. The threshold configuration allows for inter-queue QoS by utilizing buffers.
B. The priority queue must contain real-time traffic and network management traffic.
C. The 1P3Q3T indicates one priority queue, three standard queues, and three thresholds.
D. The priority queue should use less than 20% of the total bandwidth.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which three authentication services are supported by Cisco NAC Appliance? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. Kerberos
D. TACACS+
E. local
F. SNMP
Correct Answer: ABC
Working with Existing Backend Authentication Servers When working with existing backend authentication servers,
Cisco supports the following authentication protocol types:
Kerberos
RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)
Windows NT (NTLM Auth Server)
LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/nac/appliance/configuration_guide/47/cam/ 47cam-book/m_auth.html


QUESTION 4
Design for data center where you don\\’t have to dedicate one switch per rack?
A. Top of rack
B. End of row
C. Blade Switch
D. Middle of row
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Cisco FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are two
advantages of using Cisco FabricPath technology? (Choose two)
A. Cisco FabricPath relies on OSPF to support Layer 2 forwarding between switches, which allows load balancing
between redundant paths.
B. Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning.
C. Loop mitigation is provided by the TTL field in the frame.
D. Cisco FabricPath is IETF-standard and is not used with Cisco products.
E. Cisco FabricPath technology is supported in all Cisco platforms and can replace legacy Ethernet in all campus
networks.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 6
Which four primary attributes define a WAN service? (Choose four.)
A. bandwidth
B. bursting capacity
C. memory
D. CPU
E. QoS classes and policies
F. latency
G. multicast support
Correct Answer: ABEG


QUESTION 7
Which command can you enter to inject BGP routes into an IGP?
A. redistribute bgp
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute static subnet
D. default-information originate
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q8An engineer must apply IP addressing to five new WAN sites and choses the new subnets pictured. The previous
administrator applied the addressing at Headquarters. Whitch option is the minimum summary range to cover the
existing WAN sites while also allowing for three additional WAN sites of the same size, for future growth?
A. 10.0.60.0/18
B. 10.0.64.0/21
C. 10.0.64.0/17
D. 10.0.0.0/17
E. 10.0.64.0/18
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 9
What QoS technology allows traffic to pass even though it has exceeded the bandwidth limit but will be queued later?
A. Shaping
B. Policing
C. Weighted Fair Queuing
D. Low Latency Queuing
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
An engineer is redesigning the infrastructure for a campus environment. The engineer must maximize the use of the
links between the core and distribution layers. By which two methods can this usage be maximized? (Choose two.)
A. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use RPVSTP+
B. Design with multiple unequal-cost links between the core and distribution layers.
C. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use an IGP
D. Design the links between the core and distribution layers to use HSRP.
E. Design with multiple equal-cost links between the core and distribution layers.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 11
An CSPF router should have a maximum of how many adjacent neighbors?
A. 80
B. 60
C. 100
D. 50
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag and Drop question with regards to Cisco Application-Centric Infrastructure ACI .
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q12 lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q12-1

QUESTION 13
What is the preferred protocol for a router that is running an IPv4 and IPv6 dual stack configuration?
A. IPX
B. microsoft Netbios
C. IPv6
D. IPv4
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
Which one of these could you implement to sustain a large DDoS attack?
A. Stateful firewall
B. uRPF
C. Connections limits and timeouts
D. Access-lists
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
Which statement about Fibre Channel communications is correct?
A. N_Port to N_Port connections use logical node connection points.
B. Flow control is only provided by QoS.
C. It must be implemented in an arbitrated loop.
D. Communication methods are similar to those of an Ethernet bus.
Correct Answer: A
Fibre Channel supports a logical node connection point between node ports (N_ports). This is similar to TCP and UDP
sockets.


QUESTION 16
What location are security policies enforced in ACI?
A. End Point
B. Spine
C. Leaf
D. APIC
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 17
L2 extention through IP in the data center (MAC-in-IP)
A. fiberpath
B. TRILL
C. OTV
D. Vxlan
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 18
What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?
A. It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
B. Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
C. There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
D. SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. multicast routing uses RPF.
B. multicast routing is connectionless.
C. In multicast routing, the source of a packet is known.
D. When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not rebuilt, but use the original path
E. Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the only difference being that it has a a group of receivers rather
than just one destination
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 20
Which statement about the ToR design model is true?
A. It can shorten cable runs and simplify rack connectivity.
B. Each ToR switch must be individually managed.
C. Multiple ToR switches can be interconnected to provide a loop-free spanning-tree infrastructure.
D. It can connect servers that are located in separate racks.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 21
Which Cisco feature can be run on a Cisco router that terminates a WAN connection, to gather and provide WAN circuit
information that helps switchover to dynamically back up the WAN circuit?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. IP SLA
C. passive interface
D. traffic shaping
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
A company needs to configure a new firewall and have only one public IP address to use in this firewall. The engineer
need to configure the firewall with NAT to handle inbound traffic to the mail server in addition to internet outbound
traffic.lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q22Which options could he use ? (Choose Two)
A. Static NAT for inbound traffic on port 25
B. Dynamic NAT for outbound traffic
C. Static NAT for outbound traffic on port 25
D. Dynamic NAT for inbound traffic
E. NAT overload for outbound traffic
F. NAT overload for inboud traffic on port 25
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 23
Which two key components are related to one firewall per ISP design option for e-commerce? (Choose two.)
A. It is a common approach to single-homing.
B. This approach is commonly used in large sites.
C. Any failure on an edge router results in a loss of session.
D. It has one NAT to two ISP-assigned blocks.
E. It is difficult to set up and administer.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 24
Which technology should a network designer combine with VSS to ensure a loop free topology with optimal
convergence time?
A. Portfast
B. UplinkFast
C. RPVST +
D. Mulitchassis EtherChannel
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
A Network administrator want to increase the security level in the core layer and want to confirm that the users that have
their default GW on an interface in the core switch can access specific networks and can\\’t access the remaining
networks.
Which feature can help him to achieve this?
A. vlan access control list
B. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html
C. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html
D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 26
A company have single ASA hardware box and they need to separate company departments in way that they can apply
different rules on them, ACL, NAT, and so on… Which mode is needed?
A. routed mode
B. transparent mode
C. multiple context mode
D. active failover mode
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
` the rule on the left to match the appropriate activity on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q27Correct Answer: lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q27-1

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q28Correct Answer: lead4pass 300-320 exam question - q28-1Enable specifically at the network edge >STP Manually prune unused VLANs >Trunks Use specifically on fiber-optic
interconnections that link switches >UDLD Ensure that an individual link failure will not result in an STP failure
>Etherchannel Always use a number of links that is a power of 2 (2, 4, 8) to optimize the load balancing of traffic> VSS


QUESTION 29
A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network. Which option
should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task?
A. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint.
B. Configure QoS in all links.
C. Configure a new NET address.
D. Configure the links as point-to-point.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 30
An engineer is designing a multi cluster bgp network, each cluster has 2 RRs and 4 RR clients which 2 options must be
considered?
A. Clients from all clusters should peer with all RRs
B. All route reflectors should be non client peers and topology partially meshed
C. All RRs must be non client peers in a fully meshed topology
D. Clients must not peer with IBGP speakers outside the client router
E. Clients should peer with at least one other client outside it\\’s cluster
Correct Answer: DE
Route reflectors must still be fully IBGP meshed with nonclients. Therefore, route reflectors reduce meshing within
clusters, but all mesh links outside the cluster must be maintained on the route reflector. The route reflector clients get
information from IBGP speakers outside the cluster via the route reflector.


QUESTION 31
What is an advantage of using the VPC feature in data center environment ?
A. All available uplinks bandwidth is used.
B. FHRP is not required
C. A single IP is used for management of both devices
D. The two switches form a single control plane
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 32
What command essentially turns on auto summarization for EIGRP?
A. area 0 range 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0.0
B. router eigrp 1
C. ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0
D. ip summary-address 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0
E. eigrp stub
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 33
An engineer has an implemented a QOS architecture that requires a signaling protocol to tell routers which flows of
packets require special treatment. Which two mechanisms are important to establish and maintaining QOS
architecture? (choose two)
A. classification
B. tagging
C. packet scheduling
D. admission control
E. resource reservation
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 34
A customer with a single Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance wants to separate multiple segments of the e-commerce
network to allow for different security policies. What firewall technology accommodates these design requirements?
A. Routed mode
B. Virtual-context
C. Transparent mode
D. Virtual private network
E. private VLANs
F. admission control
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 35
OTV to interconnect three data centers and what should there be in each data center
A. VTEP
B. vxlan ?
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 36
A customer requires resiliency and availability for applications hosted in the data center. What two technologies meet
this requirement? (Choose two)
A. SLB
B. LTM
C. GLBP
D. GTM
E. HSRP
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 37
Which option prevents the dropping of asymmetrically routed packets in active/active failover paired firewalls?
A. Nothing can be done to prevent this from happening.
B. Configure different policies on both firewalls.
C. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to the same asymmetric routing group.
D. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to a different asymmetric routing group.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 38
Which two options regarding the Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tag are true? (Choose two)
A. It is assigned by the Cisco ISE to the user or endpoint session upon login
B. Best practice dictates it should be statically created on the switch
C. It is removed by the Cisco ISE before reaching the endpoint.
D. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a guest group allowing access to minimal services
E. Best Practice dictates that deployments should include a security group for common services such as DNS and
DHCP
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 39
In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks
B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported
C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks
Correct Answer: A

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Latest effective Cisco 300-209 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which header is used when a data plane IPsec packet is created?
A. IKEv1
B. AES
C. SHA
D. ESP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE?
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. DES
D. RSA
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which two operational advantages does GetVPN offer over site-to-site IPsec tunnel in a private MPLS-based core
network? (Choose two.)
A. Key servers perform encryption and decryption of all the data in the network, which allows for tight security policies.
B. Traffic uses one VRF to encrypt data and a different on to decrypt data, which allows for multicast traffic isolation.
C. GETVPN is tunnel-less, which allows any group member to perform decryption and routing around network failures.
D. Packets carry original source and destination IP addresses, which allows for optimal routing of encrypted traffic.
E. Group Domain of Interpretation protocol allows for homomorphic encryption, which allows group members to operate
on messages without decrypting them
Correct Answer: CD
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/group-encrypted-transport-
vpn/deployment_guide_c07_554713.html


QUESTION 4
An engineer must set up DMPN Phase2 with EIGRP to ensure spoke-to-spoke communication. Which two EIGRP
features must be disabled?
A. stub routing
B. split horizon
C. route redistribution
D. auto-summary
E. next-hop self
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 5
Which command clears all Cisco AnyConnect VPN sessions on a Cisco ASA?
A. vpn-sessiondb logoff anyconnect
B. vpn-sessiondb logoff webvpn
C. clear crypto isakmp sa
D. vpn-sessiondb logoff l2l
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Which two option, are benefits of AES compared to 3DES? (Choose two.)
A. switches encryption keys every 32 GB of data transfer
B. faster encryption
C. shorter encryption keys
D. longer encryption block length
E. repeating encryption keys
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 7
The Cisco AnyConnect client is unable to download an updated user profile from the ASA headend using IKEv2. What
is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. User profile updates are not allowed with IKEv2.
B. IKEv2 is not enabled on the group policy.
C. A new profile must be created so that the adaptive security appliance can push it to the client on the next connection
attempt.
D. Client Services is not enabled on the adaptive security appliance.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
A company has acquired a competitor whose network infrastructure uses only IPv6. An engineer must configure VPN
access sourced from the new company. Which remote access VPN solution must be used?
A. GET VPN
B. Any Connect
C. EzVPN
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
What does DART stand for?
A. Device and report tool
B. Diagnostic Anyconnect Reporting Tool
C. Delivery and Reporting Tool
D. Diagnostics and Reporting Tool
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which option describes the purpose of the shared argument in the DMVPN interface command tunnel protection IPsec
profile ProfileName shared?
A. shares a single profile between multiple tunnel interfaces
B. allows multiple authentication types to be used on the tunnel interface
C. shares a single profile between a tunnel interface and a crypto map
D. shares a single profile between IKEv1 and IKEv2
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Using the Next Generation Encryption technologies, which is the minimum acceptable encryption level to protect
sensitive information?
A. AES 92 bits
B. AES 128 bits
C. AES 256 bits
D. AES 512 bits
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel?lead4pass 300-209 exam question - q12A. incorrect PSK
B. crypto access list mismatch
C. incorrect tunnel group
D. crypto policy mismatch
E. incorrect certificate
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
You have been using pre-shared keys for IKE authentication on your VPN.
Your network has grown rapidly, and now you need to create VPNs with numerous IPsec peers.
How can you enable scaling to numerous IPsec peers?
A. Migrate to external CA-based digital certificate authentication.
B. Migrate to a load-balancing server.
C. Migrate to a shared license server.
D. Migrate from IPsec to SSL VPN client extended authentication.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 14
Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN?
A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPN
B. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN
C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN
D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
A company has a Flex VPN solution for remote access and one of their Cisco any Connect remote clients is having
trouble connecting property. Which command verifies that packets are being encrypted and decrypted?
A. show crypto session active
B. show crypto ikev2 stats
C. show crypto ikev1 sa
D. show crypto ikev2 sa
E. show crypto session detail
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 16
Which option is one of the difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN?
A. flexvpn uses ikev2 and dmvpn can use ikev1 or ikev2
B. dmvpn can use ikev1 and ikev2 where flexvpn only uses ikev1
C. flexvpn can use ikev1 and ikev2 where dmvpn uses only ikev2
D. dmvp uses ikev1 and flexvpn use ikev3
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
An IOS SSL VPN is configured to forward TCP ports. A remote user cannot access the corporate FTP site with a Web
browser. What is a possible reason for the failure?
A. The user\\’s FTP application is not supported.
B. The user is connecting to an IOS VPN gateway configured in Thin Client Mode.
C. The user is connecting to an IOS VPN gateway configured in Tunnel Mode.
D. The user\\’s operating system is not supported.
Correct Answer: B
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ssl-vpn-client/70664-IOSthinclient.html
Thin-Client SSL VPN (Port Forwarding)
A remote client must download a small, Java-based applet for secure access of TCP applications that use static port
numbers. UDP is not supported. Examples include access to POP3, SMTP, IMAP, SSH, and Telnet. The user needs
local
administrative privileges because changes are made to files on the local machine. This method of SSL VPN does not
work with applications that use dynamic port assignments, for example, several FTP applications.


QUESTION 18
Which protocol must be enabled on the inside interface to use cluster encryption in SSL VPN load balancing?
A. TLS
B. DTLS
C. IKEv2
D. ISAKMP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 19
An engineer is configuring SSL VPN for remote access. A real-time application that is sensitive to packet delays will be
used. Which feature should the engineer confirm is enabled to avoid latency and bandwidth problems associated with
SSL connections?
A. DTLS
B. DPD
C. SVC
D. IKEv2
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 20
A temporary worker must use clientless SSL VPN with an SSH plug-in, in order to access the console of an internal
corporate server, the projects.xyz.com server. For security reasons, the network security auditor insists that the
temporary
user is restricted to the one internal corporate server, 10.0.4.18.
You are the network engineer who is responsible for the network access of the temporary user.
What should you do to restrict SSH access to the one projects.xyz.com server?
A. Configure access-list temp_user_acl extended permit TCP any host 10.0.4.18 eq 22.
B. Configure access-list temp_user_acl standard permit host 10.0.4.18 eq 22.
C. Configure access-list temp_acl webtype permit url ssh://10.0.4.18.
D. Configure a plug-in SSH bookmark for host 10.0.4.18, and disable network browsing on the clientless SSL VPN
portal of the temporary worker.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. Which VPN solution does this configuration represent?lead4pass 300-209 exam question - q21

A. Cisco AnyConnect
B. IPsec
C. L2TP
D. SSL VPN
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
Which two GDOI encryption keys are used within a GET VPN network? (Choose two.)
A. key encryption key
B. group encryption key
C. user encryption key
D. traffic encryption key
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 23
Which Cisco adaptive security appliance command can be used to view the count of all active VPN sessions?
A. show vpn-sessiondb summary
B. show crypto ikev1 sa
C. show vpn-sessiondb ratio encryption
D. show iskamp sa detail
E. show crypto protocol statistics all
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial configuration shown, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
crypto ipsec transform-set MY_TRANSFORM esp-aes 128 esp-sha-hmac! crypto ipsec profile MYPROFILE
set transform-set MY_TRANSFORM ! interface Tunnel0
ip unnumbered GigabitEthernet1/1
tunnel source GigabitEthernet1/1
tunnel destination 192.168.2.200
tunnel mode ipsec ipv4
tunnel protection ipsec profile MYPROFILE! ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel0
A. The tunnel will use the routing protocol configured for GigabitEthemet 1/1 for all tunnel communication with the peer.
B. The IP route statement to reach the remote network behind the DMVPN peer is incorrect, it should be ip route
192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 tunnel 0.
C. This is an example of a static point-to-point VTI tunnel.
D. The tunnel will use esp-sha-hmac encryption in ESP tunnel mode.
E. The tunnel will use 128-bit AES encryption in ESP tunnel mode.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 25
Which option describes the purpose of the command show derived-config interface virtual-access 1?
A. It verifies that the virtual access interface is cloned correctly with per-user attributes.
B. It verifies that the virtual template created the tunnel interface.
C. It verifies that the virtual access interface is of type Ethernet.
D. It verifies that the virtual access interface is used to create the tunnel interface.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 26
What URL do you use to download a packet capture file in a format which can be used by a packet analyzer?
A. ftp:///capture//
B. https:////
C. https:///admin/capture//pcap
D. https:////pcap
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Which two statements about the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN solution are true? (Choose two.)
A. When a client connects to the Cisco ASA WebVPN portal and tries to access HTTP resources through the URL bar,
the client uses the local DNS to perform FQDN resolution.
B. The rewriter enable command under the global webvpn configuration enables the rewriter functionality because that
feature is disabled by default.
C. A Cisco ASA with an AnyConnect Premium Peers license can simultaneously allow Clientless SSL VPN sessions
and AnyConnect client sessions.
D. Content rewriter functionality in the Clientless SSL VPN portal is not supported on Apple mobile devices.
E. Clientless SSLVPN provides Layer 3 connectivity into the secured network.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 28
Which feature is enabled by the use of NHRP in a DMVPN network?
A. host routing with Reverse Route Injection
B. BGP multiaccess
C. host to NBMA resolution
D. EIGRP redistribution
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 29
Which Cisco IOS VPN feature simplifies IPsec VPN configuration and design by using on- demand virtual access
interfaces that are cloned from a virtual template configuration?
A. GET VPN
B. dynamic VTI
C. static VTI
D. GRE tunnels
E. GRE over IPsec tunnels
F. DMVPN
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 30
Which command clears all crypto configuration from a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance?
A. clear configure crypto
B. clear configure crypto ipsec
C. clear crypto map
D. clear crypto ikev2 sa
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
Which VPN feature allows remote access clients to print documents to local network printers?
A. Reverse Route Injection
B. split tunneling
C. loopback addressing
D. dynamic virtual tunnels
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 32
Which technology can rate-limit the number of tunnels on a DMVPN hub when system utilization is above a specified
percentage?
A. NHRP Event Publisher
B. interface state control
C. CAC
D. NHRP Authentication
E. ip nhrp connect
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 33
When initiating a new SSL or TLS session, the client receives the server SSL certificate and validates it. After validating
the server certificate, what does the client use the certificate for?
A. The client and server use the server public key to encrypt the SSL session data.
B. The server creates a separate session key and sends it to the client. The client decrypts the session key by using the
server public key.
C. The client and server switch to a DH key exchange to establish a session key.
D. The client generates a random session key, encrypts it with the server public key, and then sends it to the server.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 34
Which three actions can be applied to a traffic class within a type inspect policy map? (Choose three.)
A. drop
B. priority
C. log
D. pass
E. inspect
F. reset
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is running DMVPN with EIGRP, when the administrator looks at the routing
table on spoken 1 it displays a route to the hub only.
Which command is missing on the hub router, which includes spoke 2 and spoke 3 in the spoke 1 routing table?lead4pass 300-209 exam question - q35

A. no inverse arp
B. neighbor (ip address)
C. no ip split-horizon egrp 1
D. redistribute static
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 36
A company\\’s remote locations connect to data centers via MPLS.
A new request requires that unicast traffic that exist the remote location be encrypted.
Which no tunneled technology can be used to satisfy this requirement?
A. SSL
B. GET VPN
C. DMVPN
D. EzVPN
Correct Answer: B

 


QUESTION 37
Which type of communication in a FlexVPN implementation uses an NHRP shortcut?
A. spoke to hub
B. spoke to spoke
C. hub to spoke
D. hub to hub
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 38
Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken when Cisco AnyConnect cannot establish an IKEv2 connection, while
SSL works fine? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the primary protocol on the client machine is set to IPsec.
B. Verify that AnyConnect is enabled on the correct interface.
C. Verify that the IKEv2 protocol is enabled on the group policy.
D. Verify that ASDM and AnyConnect are not using the same port.
E. Verify that SSL and IKEv2 certificates are not referencing the same trustpoint.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. The IKEv2 tunnel between Router1 and Router2 is failing during session establishment. Which
action will allow the session to establish correctly?lead4pass 300-209 exam question - q39

A. The address command on Router2 must be narrowed down to a /32 mask.
B. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be switched.
C. The pre-shared key must be altered to use only lowercase letters.
D. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be the same.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
Which three parameters are specified in the isakmp (IKEv1) policy? (Choose three.)
A. the hashing algorithm
B. the authentication method
C. the lifetime
D. the session key
E. the transform-set
F. the peer
Correct Answer: ABC

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QUESTION 1
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The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is unable to call the Cisco IP Video Phone. Assuming that the calling search space has been configured correctly, which of the these can cause this issue?
A. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered to a Cisco Telepresence Video Communication Server.
B. A multipoint control unit is required in order for the call to work.
C. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered as a SIP endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. H.323 is not supported.
D. URI dialing has not been configured on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 Profile 1 > CallSetupMode must be configured as a gateway since Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a gatekeeper functionality.
F. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is not registered as a SIP endpoint on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 needs to be registered as both SIP and H.323.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
An engineer is connecting a VISCA cable. What is the purpose of this cable?
A. to connect camera to codec
B. to connect camera to monitor
C. to connect camera to touch panel
D. to connect camera to network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An engineer encounters video quality issues with an endpoint. To capture ongoing call statistics from the CLI, which command should the engineer use?
A. xStatus Call Feature Display
B. xStatus OutgoingVideoChannel Netstat 1
C. xStatus Diagnostics
D. xCommand Diagnose
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An engineer must ensure that a user can create content playlists for Digital Signs and Show and Share. Which Cisco Digital Media Suite component allows playlists to be created?
A. Cisco DMD
B. Cisco DMM
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco MXE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two tools can be used to extract traces from a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? 210-065 dumps (Choose two.)
A. RTMT
B. TraceRT
C. Wireshark
D. CLI
E. Syslog
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
A manager requires multiparty video meetings with presentation capability. Which endpoint meets the requirement assuming there is no centralized bridge?
A. Cisco SX20
B. Cisco DX650
C. Cisco 7800
D. Cisco Jabber
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
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Refer to the Exhibits, in order to create a scheduled or ad-hoc multipoint conference, which two tolls can be used? (Choose two)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
An administrator is troubleshooting an endpoint whose SIP Registration Status shows “Failed: 403 Forbidden” and must obtain information about the cause of the failure. To which two menu locations must an engineer navigate? (Choose two.)
A. Endpoint > Log Files > messages.log
B. Endpoint > Diagnostics > Log Files > all.log
C. VCS > Maintenance > Diagnostics > Incident Reporting > View
D. VCS > Status > logs > Configuration Log
E. VCS > Status > logs > Event Log
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 9
Which type of lighting is recommended for Cisco TelePresence immersive solutions?
A. point
B. reflective
C. direct
D. indirect
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A Cisco EX60 is connected to the network, but users cannot make calls and the device is unregistered. The voice engineer configured the device on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two options are causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. SIP URI is not configured correctly.
B. H.323 parameters are not configured correctly.
C. IP address is in a different subnet.
D. No user is associated to a device.
E. SIP proxy is not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which desktop endpoint support 802.3af PoE?
A. DX70
B. DX80
C. DX90
D. DX650
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An engineer is backing up a VCS configuration. Which two methods can be used? (Choose two.)
A. FTP
B. SFTP
C. SSH
D. web administration
E. local
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
An engineer sees a video camera icon on the Cisco IP phone screen status line. Which meaning of this icon is true?
A. The Cisco VT camera is connected to the PC, and the PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone.
B. The Cisco IP phone has web access.
C. The Cisco IP phone is receiving a video call.
D. The Cisco IP phone is configured with video capabilities.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A company just acquired a Cisco MCU 5300 for multi videoconferencing. The networking engineer must create a conference. To which tab does the engineer go to create a conference? 210-065 dumps
A. Endpoints
B. Conferences
C. Network
D. Settings
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
In this tutorial the instruction `Go to Conferences > Move participants’ means click the Conferences link on the menu bar and then click the Move participants tab.

QUESTION 15
Which option is the Cisco recommended minimum viewing distance for a 52″ monitor installed in a video conferencing room?
A. 1.5 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 2.5 m
D. 2.0 m
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which effect of the CLI set audio aec enable command on the immersive Cisco Telepresence system is true?
A. Echo cancellation is enabled.
B. Call economy quality feature is enabled.
C. Noise cancellation is enabled.
D. AEC audio codec is enabled.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
What is the process for resetting a Cisco VCS control appliance back to initial default configuration?
A. Push down and hold the reset button on the back of the VCS appliance for 10 seconds and power cycle the device.
B. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the defaults-reset command.
C. Log into the GUI interface as administrator, choose System Settings, select Restore, select Factory Reset.
D. Log onto the CLI console as root and initiate the factory-reset command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which two Cisco TelePresence endpoints support hosting embedded multisite conferences? (Choose two.)
A. sx20
B. MX800
C. DX70
D. DX80
E. Jabber Video for Cisco TelePresence
Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:
For reference, the below endpoints support Multisite:
MX200/300 G2
MX700/800
SX20/80

QUESTION 19
Which option is the Cisco recommended layout if cascading is being used?
A. Enhanced Continuous Presence
B. Full Participant
C. Continuous Presence
D. Active Speaker
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
When an administrator schedules a conference, which three devices are part of the process? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint
B. Cisco Prime Collaboration Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco Communications Manager
E. MCU appliance
F. Cisco TelePresence Content Server
Correct Answer: BDF

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Latest Microsoft MCSD 70-488 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q10)

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You develop a reusable workflow on a development site by using SharePoint Designer.
The workflow must be made available to a test site on a different SharePoint environment.
You need to deploy and start the workflow on the test site by using Microsoft Visual Studio 2012.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-488 dumps
Explanation:
Note:
Box 1 (SharePoint Designer): Use SharePoint Designer to save the workflow as a .wsp solution package.
Visual Studio allows you to import reusable workflows created in SharePoint Designer and convert them to code workflows for use in your SharePoint sites.
Box 2(Visual Studio): Upload the solution package to the desired site.
Box 3(Visual Studio): Use Visual Studio to Active the solution package.
After a solution package (.wsp) file is uploaded and activated on the target website (that is, the SharePoint site collection), the features that are contained in the package are installed and available for activation.
Note 2:
Steps:
1. Creating a simple, reusable workflow in SharePoint Designer.
2. Exporting the SharePoint Designer reusable workflow to a .wsp file and into SharePoint.
3. Importing the .wsp file into Visual Studio by using the Import Reusable Workflow project.
4. Altering the workflow by adding code.
5. Using the imported workflow in a SharePoint site.
* When you create a declarative workflow in Microsoft SharePoint® Designer 2010, you can save the workflow as a template in a SharePoint solution package (.wsp) file. In some circumstances, you may need to import your workflow template into the Microsoft Visual Studio® 2010 development system, and repackage it as a Visual Studio project—for example, if you want to create a solution package that contains both a declarative workflow and custom-coded workflow activities.
* Visual Studio SharePoint workflow projects deploy just like other Visual Studio SharePoint projects.

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
A company’s IT department implements a Help Desk Ticketing system that involves workflow development by using SharePoint Designer and InfoPath. The Help Desk Ticket workflow involves multiple steps and tasks that have serial approvals of multiple users and groups with custom task email messages.
The Approver accidently rejects a workflow step, and the workflow has stopped. The Approver then corrects the step.
You need to continue the workflow to reflect the updated approval.
Which activity should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate action from the list of actions in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
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Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
70-488 dumps
Explanation:
* Set Workflow Status
There is an action to Set Workflow Status under Core Actions, in both SharePoint 2013 Workflow platform and SharePoint 2010 Workflow platform.

QUESTION 3
You develop a SharePoint app to create an approval workflow for expense reports. The app must collect user input before starting the workflow.
You need to use ASP.NET forms in the workflow.
Which form type should you use?
A. Workflow input form
B. Workflow initiation form
C. Workflow task form
D. Workflow modification form
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
You may want your workflow to collect information from the person who starts it, and then reference this information later in the workflow. For example, imagine that you are designing a workflow that assigns a document review task. In some workflows of this kind, it might make sense to always automatically assign the review task to the same participant and to always use the same formula for calculating the due date. But in your workflow, you want the person who manually starts the workflow to specify both the reviewer and the due date. You can set this up by adding custom fields to the workflow initiation form and requiring that the workflow be started manually.
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QUESTION 4
You plan to create a workflow design by using Microsoft Visio 2013 and then import the design into SharePoint Designer 2013.
You need to ensure that you have repetition capability.
Which shape should you use?
A. Stage
B. Assign a Task
C. Step
D. Loop
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Loop shapes
Loops are a series of connected shapes that will execute as a loop, returning from the last shape in the series to the first, until a condition is satisfied.
Note: Workflows in SharePoint Designer 2013 now include the notions of stages, loops, and steps. The SharePoint 2013 Workflow template that is included in Visio 2013 also uses stages, loops, and steps as logical building blocks for creating a workflow

QUESTION 5
You plan to create a SharePoint Business Process Automation (BPA) project.
You need to process items for approval with the least amount of developer effort. 70-488 dumps
Which tool should you use?
A. Remote Event Receiver
B. Out-of-the-box workflow
C. SharePoint Designer workflow
D. Work Item Timer Job
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Workflows in SharePoint 2013 allow you to model and automate business processes. These business processes can be as simple as a document approval process with a single approver (shown in example below), as complex as customerfacing product catalog using web service calls and database support, or as formidable as virtually any structured business process, full of conditions, loops, user inputs, tasks, and custom actions.
Example: Simple SharePoint workflow
70-488 dumps
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You need to create a workflow custom activity to use in a custom action in SharePoint by using Microsoft Visual Studio 2012.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-488 dumps
Explanation:
Note:
Box 1 (Visual Studio): Add a new item named Workflow Custom Activity to the project.
Visual Studio 2012 now provides a “workflow custom activity” item type within SharePoint projects. You can use the item type to create a custom activity that you can then import as a custom action in SharePoint Designer 2013.
Box 2 (Visual Studio): Package the custom activity as a SharePoint solution package (.wsp) file.
Custom actions are packaged and deployed as SharePoint Features in SharePoint solution package (.wsp) files
Box 3: (Visual studio) Deploy the SharePoint solution package (.wsp) file.
After you create your custom workflow activity, you can then package and deploy it. After it is deployed, the custom activity can be consumed by SharePoint Designer 2013 as a custom action.
Box 4: Activate the feature
After a solution package (.wsp) file is uploaded and activated on the target website (that is, the SharePoint site collection), the features that are contained in the package are installed and available for activation. After the custom actions are activated, they are available for use in a workflow.
Box 5: Create a new custom action by using SharePoint Designer.
* SharePoint Designer provides a collection of workflow actions that are available through the Workflow Designer user interface (UI). Although the range of workflow actions that are included in SharePoint Designer) is extensive, it is nevertheless finite. In some cases, you may need to model a business process whose requirements are not met by the existing library of workflow actions that are available in SharePoint Designer. Recognizing that business processes often have specialized requirements, SharePoint 2013 lets you create custom workflow actions. You can develop these custom actions by using Visual Studio, and then package and deploy them to SharePoint. At that point, the custom action becomes available to workflow authors in SharePoint Designer, exactly as if it were among the library of existing actions.

QUESTION 7
Contoso uses a SharePoint site that contains subsites. Each subsite represents different projects. Each project site is based on a team site template and stores information and documents. Contoso has five teams: Manufacturing, Sales, Administration, Marketing, and IT.
You must create a different look and feel for each team site such that any visitor to the site can identify the team by looking at the colors, fonts, and background image of the site.
You need to create a different look and feel for each team.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Open Contoso Corporate Microsoft PowerPoint Slides Template, save the template as ContosoCorporate.master, and then upload it to the Theme Gallery.
B. From SharePoint Designer, go to Content Types. Right-click and select Content Type Settings.
C. Get a site background image for each team and upload it to the site collection images library. Then create a new master page for each team site by using the Master Page Gallery. Set the version to 15.
D. From the Web Designer Galleries, choose Composed Looks and create a new item for each team site. Specify the title, URL of the master page, theme, background image, and font schema file.
E. On the Site Settings page in the Look and Feel section, choose Change the look.
F. Create a new font XML schema with a font specification for each team.
Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:
B:
* Content types enable site users to quickly create specialized kinds of content by using the New Item or New Document command in a list or library. Content types provide site owners a way to make sure that that content is consistent across sites. Site owners can pre-configure specific details about the content when they set up content types for a site, list, or library.
* Define content types
If your group works with several types of files, such as worksheets, presentations, and documents, you can extend the functionality of your library by enabling and defining multiple content types. Content types add flexibility and consistency across multiple libraries. Each content type can specify a template and even workflow processes. The templates act as a starting point, for formatting and any boilerplate text and for properties that apply to the documents of that type, such as department name or contract number.
C: To map a master page to a SharePoint site
1. In Site Settings for the designated site, under the Look and Feel section, choose Master Page.
2. On Site Master Page Settings, select one of the two options for the Site Master Page or System Master Page sections:
2a. Inherit site master page from parent site Choose this option if you are configuring a child SharePoint site and want to use the parent master page.
2b. Specify a master page to be used by this site and all sites that inherit from it Choose this option if you want to map a specific master page to the site, or if you want to map a specific master page for administrative pages. A drop-down box named Default or All Channels is available for you, depending on your site or system configuration, so you can select a specific master page stored in the master page gallery. Select the desired master page from the drop-down box.
3. Choose OK.
D:
* A Composed Look is made up of:
Master Pages
CSS
Color palettes
Font palettes
Background image
* This means we can package a master page with its CSS, color palettes, font palettes and background image and have it deployed in the enterprise. With Composed Looks, you can now offer your Power Users a list of branded looks and allow them to choose an appropriate look as well as giving them limited control to make changes to the colors, image or font. You could be providing the Composed Looks.

QUESTION 8
A user deploys a sandbox solution.
The user cannot activate the solution.
You need to ensure that the user can activate the solution.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Grant permission to the user to execute the solution.
B. Grant permission to the user to activate the solution.
C. Start the Microsoft SharePoint Foundation Sandboxed Code Service.
D. Start the PerformancePoint Services.
Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:
By default, sandboxed solutions are disabled. Enable sandboxed solutions on every application server on which you want to run sandboxed solutions.
Note:
To enable sandboxed solutions by using Central Administration
Verify that you have the following administrative credentials:
You must be a member of the Farm Administrators group on the computer that is running the SharePoint Central Administration Web site.
On the home page of the Central Administration Web site, in the System Settings section, click Manage services on server.
On the Services on Server page, in the Server box, select the server on which you want to enable sandboxed solutions.
In the Microsoft SharePoint Foundation Sandboxed Code Service row, in the Action column, clickStart.
Repeat steps 3 and 4 for each server on which you want to enable sandboxed solutions.

QUESTION 9
A company uses SharePoint for internal collaboration. SharePoint is deployed on a server farm with a single front-end server, a single application server, and a dedicated database server.
You review existing Web Parts that read from and write to SharePoint lists. You find the following code in one of the utility classes and notice memory leaks in the method.
70-488 dumps
You need to ensure that there are no memory leaks in the method.
What should you do?
A. Add a finally statement and include site.Dispose ().
B. Add site.Dispose() to the catch statement.
C. Add a finally statement and include siteCollection.Dispose ();
D. Add siteCollection.Dispose() to the catch statement.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Need to manually dispose of the siteCollection instance. This can be done through a finally statement.
Note:
* Try and finally blocks or a using statement would be required to avoid potential leaks when you create a disposable object within a foreach block, as shown in the following code example. 70-488 dumps
SPWebApplication webApp = siteCollectionOuter.WebApplication;
SPSiteCollection siteCollections = webApp.Sites;
SPSite siteCollectionInner = null;
foreach (siteCollectionInner in siteCollections)
{
try //Should be first statement after foreach.
{
Console.WriteLine(siteCollectionInner.Url);
//Exception occurs here.
}
finally
{
if(siteCollectionInner != null)
siteCollectionInner.Dispose();
}
}
* Why Dispose?
Several of the Windows SharePoint Services objects, primarily the SPSite class and SPWeb class objects, are created as managed objects. However, these objects use unmanaged code and memory to perform the majority of their work. The managed part of the object is much smaller than the unmanaged part. Because the smaller managed part does not put memory pressure on the garbage collector, the garbage collector does not release the object from memory in a timely manner. The object’s use of a large amount of unmanaged memory can cause some of the unusual behaviors described earlier. Calling applications that work with IDisposable objects in Windows SharePoint Services must dispose of the objects when the applications finish using them. You should not rely on the garbage collector to release them from memory automatically.

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
You troubleshoot the sandbox solutions that your team builds.
You need to redeploy a sandbox solution. You also need to identify which process must be debugged.
Where should you redeploy the solution, and which process should you debug? (To answer, drag the appropriate statements to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each statement may be used once, more than once, or not at
all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Select and Place:
70-488 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-488 dumps
Explanation:
Box 1: SPUCWorkerProcess.exe
* The Visual Studio debugger usually attaches to the Windows SharePoint Services process (w3wp.exe). If the project type lets you change the Sandboxed Solution property and its value is set to true, then the debugger attaches to a different process (SPUCWorkerProcess.exe).
* Why Sandboxed Solutions?
In WSS 3.0, solutions could be deployed only to the farm level. This meant that potentially harmful or destabilizing solutions could be deployed that affected the whole Web farm and all of the other site collections and applications that run under it. However, by using sandboxed solutions, you can deploy your solutions to a subarea of the farm, a specific site collection. To provide additional protection, the solution’s assembly is not loaded into the main IIS process (w3wp.exe).
Instead, it is loaded into a separate process (SPUCWorkerProcess.exe). This process is monitored and implements quotas and throttling to protect the farm from sandboxed solutions that perform harmful activities, such as running tight loops that consume CPU cycles.
Box 2: Solution Gallery
The solution gallery is a document library stored in the root Web of the SharePoint site. The solution gallery replaces site templates and supports solution packages. When a SharePoint solution package (.wsp) file is uploaded, it is processed as a sandboxed solution.

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Useful Microsoft Dynamics AX MB6-892 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers Update (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
You are a purchasing agent.
Your company agrees on a purchase price with a supplier. You create a purchase agreement.
Which two tasks can you perform with the agreement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Createa release order when no commitment is defined for quantity of a product.
B. Create purchase agreements based on quality or weight.
C. Define a validity period for the purchase agreement.
D. Put purchase agreements on hold during ordering.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
You are working with a vendor who supplies you with apparel and sporting good products. You are negotiating a new purchase agreement with the vendor.
The agreement terms you have arranged with the vendor are for a 3 percent discount on all of the sporting good products when the order volume over the next month is at least 50,000 USD.
Which commitment type should you use?
A. product quantity
B. product value
C. product category value
D. value
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are the controller at Contoso, Ltd. You have configured the chart of accounts for the company and included two main accounts that should be used for posting vendor account balances. One is used for regular external vendor accounts, and the other is used for intercompany vendor accounts.
You need to configure the system to use these two main accounts.
What should you do?
A. Create a vendor posting profile.
B. Create a journal name.
C. Create an inventory posting profile.
D. Create an allocation journal.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are implementing Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for a new customer.
You need to configure the costing methodology to be a Weighted Average for all items.
What should you configure?
A. product dimension groups
B. item model groups
C. tracking dimension groups
D. item groups
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to configure commissions to be calculated on sales, only after all discounts are taken on the line items of a sales order.
What should you use?
A. The Sales order journal
B. The Price/discount agreement journal
C. The Commission percentage field
D. The Discount field
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You need to set up locations for a warehouse that will store finished goods for one of your company’s divisions.
What are three possible details that you can specify for the locations? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The maximum number of pallets
B. The physical dimensions
C. The inventory dimensions
D. The maximum dimensions of the items
E. The maximum weight that can be stored
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 7
You need to ensure that a shipment from a vendor can be accepted into inventory, even if the quantity of the product received is greater than the amount ordered. MB6-892 dumps
What should you configure?
A. The inventory and warehouse management parameters
B. The procurement and sourcing parameters
C. The product Information management parameters
D. The accounts payable parameters
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are presenting sales quotations to your client for review.
What are the two statuses that can be selected on an open sales quotation? Each correct answer presents
a complete solution.
A. Order status is sent.
B. Run in the background is selected.
C. Order status is confirmed.
D. Reason lost or cancelled is selected.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You are the purchasing administrator for your company.
You need to create a purchasing policy.
Which two policy rules should be selected to manage employee access to specific categories in the procurement category hierarchy and to define rules that control the requisition creation process? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Category access policy rule.
B. Replenishment category access policy rule.
C. Requisition purpose rule
D. Purchase requisition control rule
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
You are the accounts receivable manager. You need to match customer invoices to payments that will be recorded by searching invoice lines that meet selected criteria.
Which search option should you use?
A. Bridging method
B. Settlements
C. Create lines
D. Payment proposal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are the purchasing agent for your company.
You need to create a request for quotation (RFQ) for a product that is not in the item drop- down list.
Which type of line item should you create?
A. Category
B. Open
C. Solicitation
D. Item
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to register a pallet controlled item.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Complete a pallet transport.
B. Post an arrival journal.
C. Use the Direct registration function on the Arrival overview form.
D. Use the registration function on the order line.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
You plan to create a sales order for an item.
Currently, you do not have the item on hand, but you have a purchase order for the item.
You need to ensure that the item can be reserved against the purchase order.
What should you do?
A. From the Accounts payable parameters form, set Reservation to Automatic.
B. From the Inventory and warehouse management parameters form, select Reserve items automatically.
C. From the Accounts receivable parameters form, set Reservation to Automatic.
D. From the Inventory and warehouse management parameters form, select Reserve ordered items.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
The bill of exchange process needs to be set up on your new Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade system.
Which three configuration steps are required? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. journal names for eachstage
B. bridging account
C. posting profiles
D. remittance format
E. a method of payment
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
You need to add freight and handling charges when you enter a new purchase order.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Create a journal for the freight and handling charges.
B. Add two additional lines to the purchase order, one for the freight service item and one for the handling service items.
C. Add two additional supplementary items to the purchase order, one for freight and one for handling.
D. Add two charges transactions that each has a charges code.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 16
You are an accounts receivable manager.
Your company wants its top 10 customers in August to receive a best-selling product at a reduced price.
You need to establish a price.
Which two actions should you perform to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for this task? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set up the item sales price in the released product table.
B. Set up a Customer group for the 10 customers to be assigned to.
C. Set up a price/discount journal.
D. Set up a Price/Discount group for the 10 customers.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
Your department manager wants an estimate of the actual invoice amounts that you will bill for a customer this month. However, the department manager does not want these amounts posted.
From which two types of invoices can you create a pro forma invoice? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. subledger
B. customer
C. payment schedule
D. free text
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
You are an order processor at Contoso, Ltd.
You create a new sales order for a wholesale company. Later, the sales manager at Contoso, Ltd. for the wholesales account informs you that their company has a sales agreement for a 10 percent discount on apparel items. MB6-892 dumps
You need to ensure that the discount is applied correctly to the order and that the order updates the fulfillment of the sales agreement.
What should you do?
A. Put the sales order on hold, and then create a release from the sales agreement.
B. Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Price details option under the Sales orderline button on the sales order.
C. Delete the sales order, and then create a new sales order by using the Copy from journal function.
D. Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Create link option under the Update line button on the sales order.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You are the purchasing agent for your company. You create a request for quotation (RFQ) and send it to vendors.
You need to categorize the responses you receive from the vendors.
What should you set up?
A. Purchase agreement classification
B. Results view
C. Reason codes
D. Vendor reply status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You are the accounts payable manager for your company. You and the vendor agree that defective items will be returned with a reference to the original purchase order.
You need to create a vendor credit note.
What are three methods that can be used? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Copy the original purchase invoice.
B. Createa purchase order with the purchase type blanket order.
C. Create a purchase order with the purchase type journal.
D. Create a purchase order with the purchase type returned order.
E. Create a purchase order line for a negative quantity.
Correct Answer: CDE

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Latest Citrix 1Y0-A16 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers Update (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking at a project to expand and upgrade their Citrix environment to meet their current and future business needs. The main business requirement for this project is to provide secure and reliable access to company-owned applications for all the current and future staff, including contractors around the world.
Which two issues present a risk to the project and its deadlines based on the assessment document? (Choose two.)
A. Print jobs intermittently fail
B. A dispersed user community
C. Wide range of device types in use
D. Unpredictable timing and size of acquisitions
E. External access only through an intermittently failing Secure Gateway
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which three sections should an architect incorporate into the Project Initiation Document (PID) to ensure that the project meets the business and technical requirements of Healthy Helping Hands? (Choose three.)
A. Risk Log
B. Stage Plan
C. Project Scope
D. Detailed Design
E. Resource Requirements
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
Given the three user types in the Healthy Helping Hands environment, task workers, mobile workers and knowledge works, which two user groups would be classified as task workers? (Choose two.)
A. Sales
B. Engineers
C. Marketing
D. Manufacturing
E. Customer Service
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
Given the three user types in the Healthy Helping Hands environment, task workers, mobile workers, and knowledge workers, which two user groups would be classified as knowledge workers? (Choose two.)
A. Sales
B. Marketing
C. Engineers
D. Manufacturing
E. Customer Service
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Based on the assessment document, for which user group may an administrator need to use ICA session policies to control session bandwidth?
A. Sales
B. Finance
C. Marketing
D. Customer Service
E. Human Resources
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Given the three user types in the Healthy Helping Hands environment, task workers, mobile workers and knowledge workers, which two user groups would be classified as mobile workers? (Choose two.)
A. IT staff
B. Sales staff
C. HR employees
D. Marketing personnel
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Scenario: As Healthy Helping Hands continues to expand, the demands placed on the current solution will increase significantly. As such, an architect must assess the current hardware to identify constraints against the company’s future growth. 1Y0-A16 dumps
Which statement best describes a current hardware constraint?
A. Hard drive capacity cannot be expanded due to space limitations.
B. Existing server processors are not capable of supporting 64-bit architecture.
C. The existing 1Gbps server NIC speed is insufficient for home user connectivity.
D. Server memory is at or above the maximum supported by the current hardware and operating system.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Printing security is a key requirement for the Human Resources department of Healthy Helping Hands.
Which printing policy setting should be configured to enhance security for the HR department?
A. All User Printers
B. Session Printers only
C. User’s Default Printer only
D. Local (Non-Network) Printers only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The architect is deciding how to best deliver the Healthy Helping Hands application suite.
Based on the information given in the assessment document, which application should be streamed to desktops rather than published?
A. Finance application suite
B. Engineer’s CAD application
C. Manufacturing ERP application suite
D. HR PositivelyPeople application suite
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
During the data collection and analysis phase of the project, architects discovered that certain user groups require access to several versions of Internet Explorer.
How should the architect design a deployment scenario for older versions of Internet Explorer that must be maintained indefinitely in the environment?
A. Create one virtual machine hosted application for each Internet Explorer version and publish the applications.
B. Create one streaming application for each Internet Explorer version and stream the applications directly to user devices.
C. Create one application isolation environment for each Internet Explorer version and publish the applications with XenApp.
D. Create application silos by installing different versions of Internet Explorer to different XenApp servers and publish the applications with XenApp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Scenario: Before upgrading or expanding the Healthy Helping Hands environment, an architect wants to be sure that all current application issues are identified so they can be addressed.
Based on the assessment document, which two tools would be best suited to ensure all current issues have been identified before moving forward with the project? (Choose two.)
A. EdgeSight
B. Resource Manager
C. Windows Event Logs
D. Windows Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Based on the assessment document, which two actions must the architect take regarding Citrix licensing in order to properly assess the environment? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the IIS Service.
B. Restart the Citrix Licensing Service.
C. Add the REPORTLOG keyword to the options file.
D. Create a file called REPORT.LOG in C:\Program Files\Citrix\MyFiles.
E. Select a network share to which the local system account has write access.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Scenario: The IT manager at Healthy Helping Hands decided to pilot EdgeSight on the existing Presentation Server 4.0 farm to gather information regarding the slow logon times that Human Resources users are experiencing. The administrators completed the following tasks:
1. Installed the EdgeSight Server on a Windows Server 2003 SP1 server with the appropriate software versions for all prerequisites documented in the EdgeSight Installation Guide
2. Installed the EdgeSight Web Server, SQL Server 2005 SP2 Database with Reporting Services and EdgeSight console on a single server for the pilot
3. Installed the EdgeSight agent on all eight of the servers in the Presentation Server 4.0 farm
4. Configured EdgeSight to use the default worker and agent settings
5. Verified that all eight of the agents reported to the EdgeSight console within the first 24 hours after installation
After seven days, the data is examined and the reports show the following:
Session information, such as Logon Time and Session ID, is captured and reported for all the user sessions. Detailed information about the logon experience, such as the Profile Load Time (PLSD) or Logon Script Execution time (LSESD), is displayed in the reports.
Which statement accurately describes why the End-User Experience Metrics (EUEM) is unavailable through the default reports on the EdgeSight Console?
A. These metrics are available but must be accessed by querying the agent’s local Firebird database directly.
B. These metrics are available in the EdgeSight SQL database; a custom report can be created through Reporting Services.
C. The Human Resource users are accessing the Presentation Server 4.0 environment using an unsupported Citrix plug-in that does not send the metrics.
D. The server running Presentation Server 4.0 does not support the collection of these metrics because the server is unaware of the EUEM virtual ICA channel.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
— Exhibit —
1Y0-A16 dumps
— Exhibit —
Scenario: Healthy Helping Hands has created a new pilot XenApp 5 Platinum Edition farm with applications delivered to 25 pilot users. The pilot farm includes all the applications that were previously published to the HR users and some additional applications to support Manufacturing. During the pilot week of September 14th, the users of the PositivelyPeople application reported that the application was responding slowly.
Fortunately, EdgeSight had been installed and configured in the pilot farm and was recording data during the pilot. Attached in the exhibit is the information gathered from the Transaction Network Delay report from EdgeSight.
Which theory effectively explains the data that is presented in the report?
A. The XenApp server is waiting on another host to respond, most likely the server hosting the PositivelyPeople database.
B. The XenApp server is waiting on the network packet queue to clear as evidenced by the 9ms network latency being reported.
C. The XenApp server is reaching maximum capacity, and the lack of physical resources on the XenApp server is causing the response delay.
D. The Network Delay on 9/19/2009 is probably the source of complaints from the HR Users.
An average network latency of almost 9ms is unacceptable.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Healthy Helping Hands has decided to replace the PCs used by the Customer Service and Manufacturing teams with new thin clients, as the PCs are running operating systems which are no longer covered by extended support.
How many of these thin clients will need to be purchased?
A. 50
B. 250
C. 3000
D. 3050
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
How should an architect recommend delivering applications to the Manufacturing users at Healthy Helping Hands?
A. Publish the applications to new PCs.
B. Publish the applications to their existing devices.
C. Use XenDesktop to deliver disk-based thin clients.
D. Publish the applications to new diskless thin clients.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking into making New York and San Francisco their two principal sites, each capable of failing over to the other. 1Y0-A16 dumps This will be one of the major requirements for the Citrix infrastructure design.
Which two backend infrastructure components need improvements in disaster recovery support as part of this project? (Choose two.)
A. HP SAN storage
B. User Profile server
C. PositivelyPeople database
D. Terminal Services license server
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
Which two components need to be included in the updated disaster recovery plan, given the current Disaster Recovery Plan as outlined in the assessment document? (Choose two.)
A. EdgeSight database
B. User data directories
C. Citrix XenApp servers
D. User profile directories
E. PositivelyPeople database
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 19
Scenario: In order to plan for the possibility of a pandemic flu, the HR department for Healthy Helping Hands has asked an architect to test whether the infrastructure could accommodate 300 key or “at risk” workers working from home over a two week period.
Based on the information in the assessment document, can the existing infrastructure support such a situation?
A. No, there are insufficient licenses available to support this requirement.
B. Yes, sufficient capacity exists to support this temporary requirement; no action is required.
C. No, two additional servers are required to support the remote workers during this two week period.
D. No, the Secure Gateway/Web Interface server has insufficient capacity to support this requirement.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Scenario: As part of a government initiative to provide support to the general public during a global pandemic, Healthy Helping Hands is required to contribute to a national helpline service. This will require an additional 500 to 2000 users to be logged into the Healthy Helping Hands applications. To comply with this requirement, Healthy Helping Hands will need to provide the additional capacity within 24 hours of the request. The additional capacity must also be fully secure and fault tolerant.
Based on the current infrastructure, how would the architect meet the requirement in this scenario?
A. The current infrastructure would only require publishing additional applications in the current XenApp farm.
B. To meet capacity requirements, XenDesktop would be required to allow additional connections to be made.
C. The current infrastructure would only require the Secure Gateway/Web Interface components to be upgraded.
D. To meet capacity requirements a Provisioning Services server would be required to bring additional server capacity online when required.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which two benefits are achieved through database sharding within the Cisco APIC cluster? (Choose two.)
A. active-standby high availability
B. scalability
C. compression
D. reliability
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which overlay protocol does Cisco AVS for vSphere use to allow the ACI fabric to extend over an existing network infrastructure?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. NVGRE
D. VXLAN
E. OTV
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which three main problems was a host overlay system designed to address? (Choose three.)
A. workload mobility
B. simplified and automated workload provisioning
C. multitenancy at scale
D. integrate physical and virtual networking
E. increase visibility to traffic flows
F. better root cause analysis capabilities
G. consolidate IT infrastructure teams
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
Which two benefits of ACI help improve the time required to deploy an application? (Choose two.)
A. enabling software developers to create development environments similar to production
B. eliminating the need for expensive Layer 4 to Layer 7 service appliances
C. eliminating IP addressing from software stacks
D. evolving the IT model from manual workflows to an application model that automates deployment,
operations, and visibility
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which two ACI features assist with application service-level assurance? (Choose two.)
A. tenant health scores
B. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service integration
C. Cisco APIC database sharding
D. fabric health scores
E. QoS
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which ACI construct provides the policy-based definition that comprises the communication, performance, and security needs of an application?
A. service profile
B. endpoint group
C. application service profile
D. application network profile
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
The use of the Cisco Bi-Di 40G transceiver provides cost effective transition to a 40G ACI fabric through transmission over which cabling plant?
A. Category 6a copper
B. single pair of OM3/OM4 MM fiber
C. single pair of SM fiber
D. Twinax copper
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which method does ACI fabric dynamic load balancing use to provide optimal balancing of flows across the fabric? 600-509 dumps
A. Flows are dynamically allocated according to congestion at the leaf.
B. Flows are dynamically allocated according to hop-by-hop congestion in the fabric.
C. Flows are dynamically allocated according to link BER.
D. Flows are distributed in per packet round-robin.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which four benefits are provided by ACI services to achieve business and technical objectives? (Choose four.)
A. Identify and address technical and operational readiness to effectively deploy this architecture to support your target use cases.
B. Simplify operations through integration at the infrastructure, systems, and management levels.
C. Protect capital and operational investments while gaining a simple transition path from existing environments to architecture based on Cisco ACI.
D. Allow centralized application-based policy automation, programmability, and visibility into physical and virtual networks from a single point of management.
E. Allow centralized management and control over all Cisco platforms and non Cisco platforms.
F. Simplify and reduce the number of applications for better DevOps support.
G. Ability to design, install, and manage access/aggregation/core networks.
H. Emphasize technical objectives to best meet business requirements.
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 10
Which three options are major components of the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)
A. spine switches
B. application network profiles
C. leaf switches
D. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E. OpenFlow controller
F. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service devices
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
Which four options are important functions offered by the Cisco APIC? (Choose four.)
A. fault and event management
B. hypervisor, storage, and computing management
C. Layer 3 through 5 services integration
D. statistical collection and analysis
E. performance management
F. nonblocking data plane
G. 1.5:1 oversubscribed ports
H. BGP and OSPF routing protocol support
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 12
Before you design an ACI fabric, it is important to understand existing application interactions. If you do not understand them entirely, which approach can you use?
A. Design a classic routing configuration in which everybody can talk to anybody as the equivalent to a contract called “anyany” that all EPGs provide and consume.
B. Design around the Cisco ACI whitelist model using the common tenant, where, by default, two EPGs can communicate to each other in the absence of a contract.
C. Map each EPG to familiar constructs such as VLANs that provide segmentation and will apply policy application interactions.
D. Leverage advanced orchestration tools like Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud or Cisco UCS Director to document existing application interactions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You want to satisfy the business, risk, and customer requirements. Which option is a consideration when you select and design an ACI fabric?
A. the requirement for meaningful services (such as traffic load balancing, segmentation, filtering, traffic insertion, and monitoring) for workloads provided by virtual Layer 4 to Layer 7 servers
B. virtual machine mobility because moving from one server to another one would have to occur on the same leaf so that ACI can preserve virtual machine visibility and policy enforcement
C. the breakdown of virtual versus physical workloads because virtual workloads are treated preferentially in ACI
D. the requirement for a central point of management, but no centralized control plane
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What are two key concepts that Cisco onePK addresses in Software-Defined networks? (Choose two.)
A. network programmability
B. separation of control and data planes
C. device/feature abstraction
D. OpenFlow
E. BGP-LS
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Which four components should be considered when gathering business requirements for a customer project? 600-509 dumps (Choose four.)
A. alignment to corporate goals
B. compliance regulations
C. development team location
D. commitments to customers
E. supplier capabilities
F. business unit providing the developers
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 16
In the Agile software development process, which two principles align with customer communications? (Choose two.)
A. Software releases are held until quality gates are met.
B. Co-location of business-focused individuals and developers for face-to-face conversation is best.
C. Key developers should have a proxy that intercepts rapidly changing requirements.
D. Customer requirements are fully collected before development ensues.
E. Changing requirements are welcome, even late in development.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 17
Which role represents the voice of the customer in the Scrum software development framework?
A. development team
B. Scrum master
C. project wing
D. product owner
E. customer centre
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which three options are common programmability and automation requirements for the research academia, cloud service providers, and enterprise segments? (Choose three.)
A. network slicing
B. scaling multitenancy
C. resource automation and orchestration
D. harvesting network intelligence
E. service delivery
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 19
Which technology is vendor-specific?
A. Cisco onePK
B. OpenFlow
C. BGP-LS
D. OpenStack
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
If the client has equipment from multiple vendors in their network, which statement about the technologies that can be used is true?
A. Cisco onePK is a good candidate because it is vendor agnostic.
B. Cisco onePK is vendor-specific and therefore cannot control all the equipment.
C. OpenFlow is not a good candidate because it is vendor-specific.
D. OpenFlow is not a good candidate because it is only for Layer 2 switches.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest IBM certifications II 000-742 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
A customer has a single controller IBM TotalStorage DS4300 Storage Server. What is the maximum number of expansion drawers that can be attached?
A.0
B.3
C.7
D.16
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 2
A customer has a requirement for 9 TB of data to be stored onto tape. If the customer wants the most cost-effective LTO3 solution, the best technology choice would be:
A.IBM TotalStorage 3581 Tape Autoloader.
B.IBM TotalStorage 3582 Tape Library.
C.IBM TotalStorage 3583 Tape Library.
D.IBM TotalStorage 3584 Tape Library.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 3
A customer mentions that they are evaluating Advanced Intelligent Tape (AIT) for their open server environment. Which of the following best describes AIT technology?
A.4mm
B.Linear recording
C.Helical scan recording
D.IBM TotalStorage 3592 compatible tape
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 4
A customer needs to limit the total time it takes to back up an existing database. Which of the following is NOT required to understand the customer requirements?
A.The amount of data to be backed up
B.The kind of data being backed up
C.The maximum desired time the backup process should take
D.The number of days backups are scheduled
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 5
A customer has a heterogeneous environment that is backed up using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager attached to a tape silo. Due to network congestion, the expanding data within the environment can no longer be backed up within the time available. The data growth is expected to increase rapidly over the next few months. The average recovery window for this environment is currently estimated at 72 hours. Which of the following options would resolve the network problem?
A.Install an IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500.
B.Utilize LAN free backups over the SAN.
C.Install iSCSI to improve block I/O throughput.
D.Increase the number of tape drives within the silo.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 6
A customer owns a 150 GB usable RAID 5 SCSI disk subsystem attached to a single host and wants to increase data throughput, reliability, availability, and serviceability. Cost is a significant consideration. Which of the following is most likely to satisfy all of these requirements?
A.Convert the RAID 5 subsystem to a RAID 1 subsystem.
B.Convert the existing subsystem to dual-attached SCSI.
C.Replace the existing subsystem with an IBM TotalStorage DS4000 Storage Server.
D.Replace the existing subsystem with an IBM TotalStorage DS8000 Storage Server.
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 7
A distributor is planning to open five locations, with each location requiring a local nightly backup of 500 GB of data from a Sun server. Performance and cost are key requirements. 000-742 dumps Which of the following is the best solution?
A.IBM TotalStorage 3581 Tape Autoloader
B.IBM TotalStorage 3590 Model H11 Tape Drive
C.IBM TotalStorage 3592 Model J1A Tape Drive
D.IBM TotalStorage 7205 Model 550 External SDLT320 Tape Drive
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 8
A customer is currently running a mail server application and is interested in a new storage subsystem. Which of the following will have the most impact in sizing the subsystem?
A.Record size
B.Logical volume partitioning
C.Data security
D.Number of users
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 9
A large customer environment consists of 16 Intel-based servers that support electronic mail.
The servers have exceeded their disk storage capacity and the customer would like to centralize disk storage. Which of the following solutions should be recommended?
A.IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500
B.IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller
C.IBM TotalStorage DS4000 Storage Server
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Space Management
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 10
A customer is running a SAP R/3 application using Oracle Parallel Server as the database manager on an IBM eServer pSeries server. The customer would like two servers to share the same Oracle database. Which of the following IBM storage products would NOT be recommended to meet the customer’s requirement?
A.IBM TotalStorage EXP Plus
B.IBM TotalStorage SAN Filesystem
C.IBM TotalStorage NAS Gateway 500
D.IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 11
A customer will be using an IBM TotalStorage DS4000 Storage Subsystem. In order to provide the highest data availability for a database server, which of the following is the most appropriate hardware RAID technology to recommend?
A.RAID 1
B.RAID 5
C.RAID 10
D.RAID 50
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 12
A customer is migrating a 600 GB Oracle database from an older IBM eServer pSeries server toa new one. The data is on a 2 TB IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Storage Server (ESS) that is 80% full.
What is the easiest way to move the data to the new server?
A.Assign new LUNs to the new system, backup the data with the existing tape library, and restore it on the new system.
B.Use IBM TotalStorage ESS Specialist to assign the existing LUNs to the new server and use AIX LVM importvg to acquire the existing data.
C.Create new LUNs as targets, perform FlashCopy to those LUNs, and assign the target LUNs to the new server.
D.Create new LUNs as targets, perform Metro Mirror to those LUNs, and assign the target LUNs to the new server.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a feature of all IBM TotalStorage Ultrium tape drives?
A.Statistical Analysis and Reporting System (SARS)
B.Native switched fabric 2 Gb Fibre Channel interface
C.WORM Tape
D.64 MB buffer
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 14
After a long competitive sales cycle, the customer has decided to implement their first centralized storage solution on the IBM TotalStorage DS4500 Storage Server. To help ensure a successful installation, which of the following should be proposed as part of the solution?
A.Service Alert
B.Business Continuance Services
C.3-Year Warranty Service Upgrade
D.Planning and Implementation Services
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 15
A customer would like to integrate a Windows file server into the centralized IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) backup solution. The servers are SAN attached to an IBM Total Storage DS4500.
There is very little LAN bandwidth to spare. What should the Storage Specialist recommend?
A.Implement an IBM TSM LAN Free solution.
B.Add a larger dedicated tape drive and have IBM TSM manage it remotely.
C.Install IBM TSM for Application Servers.
D.Install the IBM TSM client and backup over the network.
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question. The customer wants to run centralized backups.
Assuming a uniform change rate for the data on all of the servers shown, which of the following nodes is the best candidate for a backup server?

A.Node A
B.Node B
C.Node C
D.Node E
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 17
When choosing between an IBM TotalStorage 3582 Tape Library and an IBM TotalStorage 3583 Tape Library for an open system environment, which requirement differentiates the two libraries?
A.Standalone or rack mounted
B.SCSI or FC attachment
C.Logical library sharing
D.Upgradeable storage slot capacity
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 18
A customer has reviewed the Storage Specialist’s proposal for a centralized disk solution supporting Sun, HP, Intel, IBM eServer pSeries and iSeries servers. 000-742 dumps The customer’s feedback indicates that the solution exceeds their budget. They also indicate that they have signed an agreement outsourcing their iSeries applications. Which of the following would be the most appropriate change to the proposal?
A.Reduce the amount of disk configured in the subsystem.
B.Reduce the amount of disk configured in the subsystem and reduce the SAN port count.
C.Reduce the amount of disk configured, change the subsystem to a NAS solution and eliminate the SAN.
D.Reduce the amount of disk configured, change the subsystem to IBM TotalStorage DS4000 and reduce the SAN port count.
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is a competitive advantage of the IBM TotalStorage DS4300 compared to the HP MSA1000?
A.FlashCopy option
B.Remote Mirroring option
C.Additional host configuration options
D.Better reliability, availability, and serviceability (RAS) characteristics
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 20
A customer has a requirement for recall of tape data. The media choice must have the longest archival life. Which of the following would be the most appropriate selection?
A.LTO
B.DLT
C.SDLT
D.3590
Correct Answers: A

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QUESTION 1
What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode environment? (Choose three.)
A. updating the pseudonode LSP
B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information
C. creating the pseudonode LSP
D. flooding LSPs over the LAN
E. election of the pseudonode
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. Anengineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp discovery targeted-hello accept command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The 2.6.6.6/32 prefix is flapping when PE1 is flapping. Which action can fix this issue?
A. On PE2, allow only redistribution from BGP into IS-IS; on PE3, allow only redistribution from IS-OS into BGP.
B. Configure all IS-IS instances as level-1-only.
C. Configure a sham link between PE2 and PE3.
D. On PE2 and PE3, reconfigure redistribute BGP into IS-IS using the metric-type external parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
When a traceroute is performed from a PC behind R2, the next hop on R1 for IPv4 is 10.0.1.2, and for IPv6 it is 2001:DB8:2:2. What is causing thus behavior? 400-201 dumps
A. GigabitEthernet2/1 has a Level 1-only adjacency. This causes it to be the preferred path for the IPv6 packets.
B. When SPF ran on R2, it calculated two equal paths to R1. It was a coincidence that than the packets choose different paths.
C. Multitopology is enabled on R2, which causes the IPv6 packets to use a different path than the IPv4 packets.
D. 2001:DB8:2::2 is on a Gigabit Ethernet interface. Because its speed is higher than Fast Ethernet, the IS-IS metric is preferred.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which MPLS TE component keeps track of the flooding and admission control?
A. MPLS TE priorities
B. RSVP
C. link attributes
D. link manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which is the main goal of BGPsec regards to improve BGP security?
A. Reduces risk of improper route propagation from unauthorized AS numbers
B. Configures BGP route verification by storing routes in a database used to validate AS numbers
C. Adds encryption to route propagation outside the iBGP AS
D. Increases legitimacy and authenticity of BGP advertisements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two models are used in MPLS TE bandwidth constraints? (Choose two)
A. mdm
B. rdm
C. bdm
D. mam
E. tern
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller node? (Choose two)
A. Neutron Layer 3 agent
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Identity Service
D. Neutron Layer 2 agent
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What are the two benefits of graceful restart? (Choose two)
A. Graceful restart allows session information recovery without disruption to the network.
B. A node can perform a graceful restart to help a neighbor recover its state. The label bindings are kept on state information, which helps the failed node recover faster and does not affect the current forward traffic.
C. Graceful restart allows a node to recover state from its neighbor when there is no RP or before the device undergoes SSO.
D. Graceful restart does not allow session information recovery.
E. During a graceful restart, the router removes any stale prefixes after a timer for stale entries expires
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about the BGP next-hop attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs do not modify the next-hop attribute.
B. By default, iBGP sessions change the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers to self address.
C. By default, the next-hop attribute is not changed when a prefix is reflected by the route reflector
D. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs change the next-hop attribute to peer address.
E. By default, iBGP sessions preserve the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that ensures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? 400-201 dumps (Choose two.)
A. IP FRR
B. NSR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. TE FRR
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
The Attribute field within the IS-IS LSP header contains which of the following flags? (Choose four)
A. IS-Type
B. Overload (LSPDBOL)
C. Pseudonode (PN)
D. Attached (ATT)
E. Fragment (Frag-Nr)
F. Partition (P)
Correct Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 13
One ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS, you want to redesign the network to improve performance and convergence, which are correct ways? (Choose two)
A. Bidirectional forwarding failure detection
B. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP…….exp backoff timers C. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
C. IP Event Dampending
D. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The prefix 10.1.1.64/28 should be advertised to the PE router, yet the prefix is not being received by the PE. Which configuration should be applied on CE in order to fix this issue?
A. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP seq 1 permit 10.1.1.64/28
B. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.128 mask 255.255.255.128
C. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP permit 10.1.1.64/28
D. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which Cisco IOS XR Virtualization technology provides full isolation between virtualized routing instances for extra control plane resources?
A. HVR
B. SVR
C. SDR
D. DRP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which router is the DIS?
A. router-22
B. router-44
C. router-33 and router-44
D. router-11
E. router-33
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which is one difference between H-VPLS and VPLS? 400-201 dumps
A. VPLS is a point-to-point Layer-2 services and H-VPLS is a multipoint Layer-2 services.
B. H-VPLS reduces signaling overhead and packet replication requirementsfor the provider edge.
C. VPLS improve scalability concerns identified on H-VPLS implementation.
D. H-VPLS connects using also other Layer-2 encapsulation such as PPP and VPLS connects using
Ethernet encapsulation only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to deploy a solution that allows for 200 DS1 s and 100 DS0s that are multiplexed to a single interface on a Cisco 7600 Series Router. Which interface type satisfies this requirement?
A. Channelized T3/E3 (DS0)
B. Channelized OC-12/STM-4
C. OC-12/STM-4
D. OC-48c/STM-16
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
In an MPLS VPN environment, the QoS marking over the MPLS backbone must be different from the one that is received from the customer. The forwarding on the egress PE is based on the marking that is set by the ingress PE. Which null label and QoS mode can achieve this?
A. MPLS explicit null with pipe mode
B. MPLS implicit null with short pipe mode
C. MPLS implicit null with uniform mode
D. MPLS explicit null with uniform mode
E. MPLS explicit null with short pipe mode
F. MPLS implicit null with pipe mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
B. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Correct Answer: B

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