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The Cisco 300-430 ENWLSI (Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks) exam is a key component of the CCNP Enterprise certification. It evaluates your ability to implement wireless solutions, design secure WLANs, and troubleshoot performance issues.

As of November 2025, the 300-430 exam remains active and valid in the CCNP Enterprise certification track, meaning candidates can still pair it with the 350-401 ENCOR exam to earn the full CCNP Enterprise credential.

Updated Exam Format and Key Information

Cisco has refined the 300-430 exam blueprint to align with the latest wireless technologies, including Wi-Fi 6E and automation in enterprise networks.

Exam Duration: 90 minutes

Number of Questions: 55–65

Question Types: Multiple choice, drag-and-drop, simulations, and case-based scenarios

Passing Score: 750–850/1000 (unofficial estimate)

Main Exam Topics

Wireless Network Design – WLAN planning, coverage optimization, and roaming strategies.

FlexConnect and Local Mode – Deployment modes and controller management.

Quality of Service (QoS) – Traffic prioritization and multicast optimization.

WLAN Security – WPA3, EAP methods, and integration with Cisco ISE.

Troubleshooting and Monitoring – Diagnosing performance and connectivity issues.

Why the Cisco 300-430 Exam Matters in 2025

With the increasing adoption of Wi-Fi 6/6E and enterprise IoT networks, wireless engineers remain in high demand.
Professionals certified in ENWLSI often find roles such as Wireless Network Engineer, Network Specialist, or Systems Consultant, with average salaries exceeding $110,000 annually in the U.S. market.

Study Resources for the 300-430 Exam

Effective preparation involves using both official Cisco materials and verified third-party resources.
For candidates who prefer practical learning, Leads4Pass offers a structured question bank and mock exam set that aligns closely with Cisco’s exam topics.

You can review their latest collection of 300-430 PDF and VCE practice tests here:
👉 https://www.leads4pass.com/300-430.html

Cisco Official Updates

Cisco has integrated several key updates into the ENWLSI blueprint:

Wi-Fi 6E and 7 Technologies: Expanded coverage of 6GHz frequency planning and high-density deployment.

DNA Center Automation: Greater emphasis on wireless policy automation and network analytics.

Zero Trust Integration: Stronger focus on authentication, endpoint control, and identity-based access.

Recommended Learning Path for Candidates

Start with ENCOR (350-401) – Understand enterprise networking fundamentals.

Transition to ENWLSI (300-430) – Focus on wireless deployment and management.

Hands-on Labs: Use Cisco Packet Tracer, DNAC Sandbox, or WLC lab environments.

Practice Tests: Take regular mock exams to measure readiness.

Join Communities: Participate in the Cisco Learning Network for peer support.

Practical Preparation Tips from Successful Candidates

Create a weekly study plan: Dedicate 2–3 hours daily for topic review and lab practice.

Use visual tools: Mind maps and topology diagrams help retain configuration logic.

Focus on troubleshooting: Learn to interpret logs and identify interference patterns.

Simulate real networks: Recreate small WLAN environments using virtual controllers or real APs.

Real-World Applications of ENWLSI Knowledge

Candidates who pass the 300-430 often apply their skills in:

Enterprise Wi-Fi optimization projects

IoT and sensor network deployment

Corporate WLAN migration to Wi-Fi 6/6E

Network automation with DNA Center APIs

These use cases reflect Cisco’s shift toward secure, adaptive wireless infrastructures that support hybrid work and smart buildings.

[Free share] Cisco 300-430 Exam Questions and Answers

Number of exam questions	Related	Complete material
15	CCNP	316 Q&A

Question 1: Where is a Cisco OEAP enabled on a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller?

A. RF Profile

B. Flex Profile

C. Policy Profile

D. AP Join Profile

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/9800/configguide/b_wl_16_10_cg/flex connect.html

Question 2: Which Cisco vMSE Release 8 option must the engineer deploy?

An engineer configures a deployment to support:

Cisco CMX

licenses for at least 3000 APs

6000 wIPS licenses

The Cisco vMSE appliance must be sized for this deployment.

A. Large vMSE

B. Low-End vMSE

C. Standard vMSE

D. High-End vMSE

Correct Answer: D

Refer to: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/mobility-services-engine/data_sheet_c07-473865.html

Question 3: Which cause of this issue is true?

An engineer configured a Cisco AireOS controller with two TACACS+ servers. The engineer notices that when the primary TACACS+ server fails, the WLC starts using the secondary server as expected, but the WLC does not use the primary

server again until the secondary server fails or the controller is rebooted.

A. Fallback is enabled

B. Fallback is disabled

C. DNS query is disabled

D. DNS query is enabled

Correct Answer: B

Question 4: What is configured to use more than one port on the OEAP to extend the wired network\'s?

A. AAA override

B. client load balancing

C. remote LAN ACL

D. remote LAN

Correct Answer: D

Question 5: Which action ensures that access to the network is restricted for these users unless the correct authentication mechanism is configured?

WPA2 Enterprise with 802.1X is being used for clients to authenticate to a wireless network through a Cisco ISE server. For security reasons, the network engineer wants to ensure that only PEAP authentication is used. The engineer sent instructions to clients on how to configure the supplicants, but the ISE logs still show users authenticating using EAP-FAST.

A. Enable AAA override on the SSID, gather the usernames of these users, and disable the RADIUS accounts until the devices are correctly configured.

B. Enable AAA override on the SSID and configure an ACL on the WLC that allows access to users with IP addresses from a specific subnet.

C. Enable AAA override on the SSID and configure an access policy in Cisco ISE that denies access to the list of MACs that have used EAP-FAST.

D. Enable AAA override on the SSID and configure an access policy in Cisco ISE that allows access only when the EAP authentication method is PEAP.

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

On a branch office deployment, it has been noted that if the FlexConnect AP is in standalone mode and loses connection to the WLC, all clients are disconnected, and the SSID is no longer advertised. Considering that FlexConnect local switching is enabled, which setting is causing this behavior?

A. ISE NAC is enabled

B. 802.11r Fast Transition is enabled

C. Client Exclusion is enabled

D. FlexConnect Local Auth is disabled

Correct Answer: D

Question 7: Which customizable security report on Cisco Prime Infrastructure will show rogue APs detected since a point in time?

A. Network Summary

B. Rogue APs Events

C. New Rogue APs

D. Rogue APs Count Summary

Correct Answer: C

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/prime/infrastructure/2-0/user/guide/prime_infra_ug/reps.html#:~:text=This%20report%20displays%20all%20rogues%20detected%20for%20the%20first

Question 8: Which marking value must be trusted on port Fa 0/6?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must preserve a QoS marking sent by the Cisco Jabber software running on PC1.

A. DSCP

B. 802.1p

C. CoS

D. IP precedence

Correct Answer: A

Question 9: How does the engineer accomplish this task without using Cisco ISE?

ALLAR A network engineer must segregate all iPads on the guest WLAN to a separate VLAN.

A. Enable RADIUS DHCP profiling on the WLAN.

B. Create a local policy on the WLC.

C. Use an mDNS profile for the iPad device.

D. Use 802.1x authentication to profile the devices

Correct Answer: B

Question 10: Which option is an impact of BYOD should be considered?

A company wants to switch to BYOD to reduce IT support costs for the company.

A. increased VPN connections

B. restricted device enforcement

C. increased phishing attacks

D. decreased support calls

Correct Answer: A

Question 11: How should the CAPWAP multicast group address be assigned during configuration?

An engineer is configuring multicast for two WLCs. The controllers are in deferent physical locations and each handles around 500 wire clients.

A. Each WLC must be assigned a unique multicast group address

B. Each WLC management address must be in the same multicast group

C. Each WLC management address must be in a different multicast group

D. Both WLCs must be assigned the same multicast group address

Correct Answer: A

Question 12: Which two configurations on the wired network ensure end-to-end QoS?

An engineer set up a VoWLAN with QoS on the WLC and a class map on the switch, but the markings are not being preserved correctly in the end-to- end traffic flow. (Choose two.)

A. trust boundaries

B. access lists

C. policy maps

D. QoS licenses

E. NetFlow

Correct Answer: BC

Question 13: Which controller mapping must be modified for this feature?

A network engineer is configuring a Cisco FlexConnect AP to allow Cisco ISE to dynamically assign the subnet of a user based on their credentials.

A. WLAN VLAN

B. VLAN ACL

C. RF group

D. AP group

Correct Answer: D

The AP group configuration includes various parameters that define the behavior and settings of the access points within the group. By modifying the AP group, the network engineer can configure the FlexConnect APs to communicate with Cisco ISE for dynamic VLAN assignment based on user credentials.

Question 14: What is the cause of the problem?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must restrict some subnets to have access to the WLC. When the CPU ACL function is enabled, no ACLs in the drop-down list are seen.

A. The ACL does not have a rule that is specified to the Management interface.

B. No ACLs have been created under the Access Control List tab.

C. When the ACL is created, it must be specified that it is a CPU ACL.

D. This configuration must be performed through the CLI and not though the web GUI.

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

When using a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller, which statement about AutoQoS is true?

A. It has a set of predefined profiles that you cannot modify further

B. It matches traffic and assigns each matched packet to QoS groups

C. It automates deployment of wired QoS and makes wireless QoS implementation easier

D. It allows the output policy map to put specific QoS queues into specific subgroups

Correct Answer: B

...

Exam Strategy and Time Management

Understand the question pattern: Identify keywords quickly.

Flag uncertain questions: Revisit them after completing the easier ones.

Avoid overthinking simulation tasks: Focus on logical steps, not guesswork.

Review wireless fundamentals: Don’t skip RF basics, even if you’re experienced.

Maintaining Motivation During Study

It’s easy to feel overwhelmed by the technical depth of ENWLSI. Try:

Breaking topics into daily “micro goals.”

Studying with peers online.

Rewarding yourself after completing each section.

Consistency matters more than long, irregular study sessions.

Post-Exam Career Path

After passing 300-430, you can:

Advance to CCNP Enterprise certification (with ENCOR).

Explore roles in wireless design, mobility, and security.

Prepare for higher-level certifications like CCIE Enterprise Wireless.

Ethical Use of Dumps and Practice Resources

Always use dumps as practice references, not as shortcuts.

Authentic study ensures better understanding, stronger performance, and long-term value for your career.

Platforms like Leads4Pass provide legitimate and verified study materials — not exam leaks — aligned with Cisco’s published topics.

Final Thoughts

The Cisco 300-430 ENWLSI exam remains one of the most relevant wireless certifications for enterprise professionals in 2025.
By combining official study guides, hands-on labs, and trusted practice tests, candidates can confidently master the skills needed to design, implement, and troubleshoot advanced wireless networks.

If you’re preparing now, consider reviewing the updated resources available at:
👉 https://www.leads4pass.com/300-430.html

Thanks for reading — and best of luck on your certification journey!

FAQs

Q1: Is the Cisco 300-430 exam still valid in 2025?
Yes, it remains an active specialization under the CCNP Enterprise certification.

Q2: What’s the average preparation time?
Most candidates need 4–6 weeks of consistent study and lab practice.

Q3: Does the exam include Wi-Fi 6E questions?
Yes, the 2025 version covers Wi-Fi 6E planning and configuration.

Q4: Can I use Packet Tracer for wireless practice?
Yes, though real or simulated WLC environments provide better realism.

Q5: Where can I find reliable 300-430 study material?
Official Cisco Learning Network and verified platforms like Leads4Pass provide structured resources.

[Update 2025] Get the latest Cisco 300-820 exam dumps from Leads4Pass | 300-820 online practice test

October 30, 2025

admin

7:18 am

In today’s rapidly evolving collaboration landscape, the Cisco 300-820 exam (Implementing Cisco Collaboration Cloud and Edge Solutions – CLCEI) has become a vital milestone for IT professionals specializing in Cisco Collaboration technologies.
This certification validates your ability to deploy and manage Cisco Expressway, Webex, Hybrid Services, and secure SIP signaling, forming the foundation of the CCNP Collaboration certification.

This comprehensive guide provides you with the latest Cisco updates, practical study plan, and an in-depth look at how the Leads4Pass 300-820 dumps https://www.leads4pass.com/300-820.html (PDF + VCE) can help you pass the exam with confidence.

Latest Official Overview of the Cisco 300-820 Exam

Cisco updated the 300-820 CLCEI exam in 2025, focusing on secure, intelligent collaboration between cloud and edge systems.
Key changes include:

New Webex Cloud registration mechanisms and integration with Cisco Control Hub.

Enhanced identity security coverage, including SAML, OAuth, and TLS signaling encryption.

Higher proportion of scenario-based lab questions (up to 40%).

Additional focus on Hybrid Calling and Expressway-C/E interoperability.

Exam Details:

Code: 300-820 CLCEI

Duration: 90 minutes

Number of Questions: 55–65

Passing Score: 750/1000

Why Choose the Latest 300-820 Dumps from Leads4Pass

When preparing for Cisco certification, the quality of your learning resources determines your success.
The Leads4Pass 300-820 exam dumps are globally recognized for their accuracy, up-to-date content, and practical format.

Highlights include:

✅ 210 real Q&A, fully aligned with the latest 2025 exam blueprint.

✅ VCE format for realistic simulation testing.

✅ PDF version for convenient offline study.

✅ Free sample questions and 7-day refund policy.

👉 Access the official 300-820 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-820.html

Cisco 300-820 Exam Structure and Topic Weighting

Domain	Weight
1.0 Key Concepts	25%
2.0 Initial Expressway Configurations	25%
3.0 Mobile and Remote Access	25%
4.0 Cisco Webex Technologies	55%

Effective Feb. 3, 2026, the 300-820 CLCEI exam will be renamed to 300-820 CLHCT: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Hybrid and Cloud Technologies
First date to test for v2.0 exam will be February 3, 2026.
View 300-820 CLHCT v2.0 Exam Topics

4-Week High-Impact Study Plan

Week	Study Goal	Recommended Resources
Week 1	Understand exam structure and key topics	Cisco CLCEI course materials
Week 2	Focus on Expressway deployment & Hybrid Services lab	Leads4Pass VCE + lab practice
Week 3	Master security & authentication topics	Review errors + Cisco documentation
Week 4	Practice with mock exams & time management	Full VCE simulations + final review

💡 Study for 2 hours daily and dedicate the final 3 days to full simulations and mistake review.

Hands-On Example: Expressway Traversal Zone Configuration

Practical knowledge is crucial for the 300-820 exam.
Here’s a simple Expressway-E/C Traversal Zone setup example:

xConfiguration Zones Zone[1].Name: "TraversalZone"
xConfiguration Zones Zone[1].Protocol: "TLS"
xConfiguration Zones Zone[1].PeerAddress: "expressway-e.domain.com"
xConfiguration Zones Zone[1].Authentication: "Digest"

This configuration ensures secure, bidirectional TLS communication between Expressway-E and Expressway-C.
Candidates are strongly encouraged to practice similar setups in a lab environment.

Exam Strategy & Test-Day Tips

Start with strong areas: Answer Expressway configuration and Hybrid questions first.

Manage time: Reserve at least 50 minutes for scenario-based questions.

Use the Leads4Pass VCE simulator to reduce anxiety and build exam confidence.

Analyze mistakes: Focus on keywords like “Traversal Zone,” “Hybrid Service Connector,” etc.

Effective repetition and time control can significantly boost your pass rate.

Latest Cisco 300-820 Exam Practice Questions & Answers

Number of exam questions	Related
15 (Free)	Cisco CCNP

Question 1:

A Webex administrator is configuring the Webex Control Hub to enable enterprise users to sign into Webex securely by authenticating to the IdP of the organization. To conform to the SAML specification, to what can the NameID format be set?

A. urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:nameid-format:unspecified

B. urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:1.1:nameid-format:emailAddress

C. urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:nameid-format:transient

D. urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:1.1:nameid-format:emailAddress

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

Why would a Cisco Jabber contact under Hybrid Messaging Integration be grayed out?

A. The contact uses Cisco Webex Teams and Jabber and remains as Do not Disturb for 30 minutes.

B. The contact was using only Cisco Webex Teams and changed the status to Away.

C. The contact set Out of the O ce for Cisco Webex Teams.

D. The other user has not used Cisco Webex Teams or Jabber within the last 72 hours, so they are ofiine.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The other user has not used Webex App or Jabber within the last 72 hours. The Message Connector destroys the XMPP session it was holding for the offline user\'s Webex App. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/spark/hybridservices/messageservice/cmgt_b_spark-hybrid-message-deployment-guide/cmgt_b_spark-hybrid-message-deployment-guide_chapter_00.html

Question 3:

A company is installing Cisco Collaboration infrastructure and one of the requirements is that they must be able to communicate with many external parties that are using H.323 and SIP. Internally they want to register the endpoints only on SIP.

Which functionality would describe the feature that needs to be enabled and where to achieve this?

A. Interworking in Expressway-C

B. Transcoding in Cisco Unified Communications Manager

C. Transcoding in Expressway-C

D. Interworking in Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

What is the result if force encryption for media is enabled in the Expressway on a zone that points to a system/endpoint that is not configured for encryption?

A. The call is dropped.

B. The call works with one end only sending encrypted media.

C. The call renegotiates for unencrypted media.

D. The call uses encryption if available, or it falls back to unencrypted media.

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

When deploying an Expressway Core and Expressway Edge cluster for mobile and remote access, which TLS verify subject name must be configured on the Expressway-E UC traversal zone?

A. Webex CUSP Cluster Name

B. Expressway-E Cluster Name

C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Publisher FQDN

D. Expressway-C Cluster Name

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

What are the steps to access the Service Setup Wizard during the first setup of the Expressway server to license the server?

A. Factory reset the Expressway server to pass from Smart Licensing to PAK-based licensing.

B. From the GUI of the Expressway server, go to Status> Overview> Run service setup.

C. Factory reset the Expressway server to pass from Expressway-C to Expressway-E.

D. From the GUI of the Expressway server, go to Maintenance> Option keys> First Setup Wizard.

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

A Webex engineer is configuring SSO in Control Hub with Active Directory Federation Services. The engineer wants to authenticate users for all the applications that they are given rights to. The engineer also wants to eliminate further prompts when users switch applications during a particular session. Which action tells ADFS the fields to map to Webex to identify a user?

A. Send LDAP attributes as claims.

B. Create claim rules for Webex authentication

C. Add a relying party trust to the ADFS.

D. Map the E-mail-addresses LDAP attribute to the uid outgoing claim type.

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

An administrator must configure the DNS SRV records for Mobile and Remote Access for a company with the domain example.com, the Expressway-E FQDN is ExpE.example.com, and the Expressway-C FQDN is Exp-C.example.com. What must the administrator configure to allow external clients to discover the Expressway-E server?

A. SRV record _collab-edge._tls.example.com that resolves to ExpE.example.com on port 8443

B. SRV record _cisco-uds._tcp.example.com that resolves to ExpE.example.com on port 5061

C. SRV record _cisco-uds._tcp.example.com that resolves to ExpC.example.com on port 8443

D. SRV record _collab-edge._tls.example.com that resolves ta ExpE.example.com on port 5061

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?

A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.

B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.

C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.

D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.

Correct Answer: B

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Latest Cisco 300-820 Exam Practice Questions 10

A Cisco Webex device on an enterprise network has identified the given STUN round-trip delays in milliseconds to the enterprise Video Mesh clusters and two Webex Cloud Media clusters during the call setup. Which correct sequence of clusters is the client connecting to?

A. US West Coast WCMC. If US West Cost WCMC is full, then Europe WCMC because clients select clusters in the order of SRT delays.

B. DC Europe. If DC Europe is full, DC APAC because clients select on-premises clusters in the order of SRT delays before using cloud resources,

C. DC Europe. If DC Europe is full, US West Coast WCMC because clients select resources in the order of SRT delays but ignore SRTs greater than 250 ms

D. US West Coast WCMC. Clients continuously monitor DC US cluster and reconnect when DC US are available to save bandwidth.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Local reachable Video Mesh resources are tried first, in order of lowest SRT delay. When all local resources are exhausted, the participant connects to the cloud.

While the preference for node selection is your locally deployed Video Mesh nodes, we support a scenario where, if the STUN round-trip (SRT) delay to an on-premises Video Mesh cluster exceeds the tolerable round-trip delay of 250 ms (which usually happens if the on-premises cluster is configured in a different continent), then the system selects the closest cloud media node in that geography instead of a Video Mesh node. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/wbxt/videomesh/cmgt_b_webex-video-mesh-deployment-guide/cmgt_b_hybrid-media-deployment-guide_chapter_010.html

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

Latest Cisco 300-820 Exam Practice Questions 11

What are "Type" field values for this Expressway servers zone configuration?

A. Expressway-C "DNS", Expressway-E "Traversal server"

B. Expressway-C "Traversal server", Expressway-E "Traversal client"

C. Expressway-C "Neighbor", Expressway-E "Neighbor"

D. Expressway-C "Traversal client", Expressway-E "Traversal server"

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

Which two licenses are required for the B2B feature to work? (Choose two.)

A. Traversal Server

B. TURN Relays

C. Rich Media Sessions

D. Advanced Networking

E. Device Provisioning

Correct Answer: AC

Question 13:

Which connection does the traversal zone configuration define?

A. Expressway-E and Collaboration Endpoints

B. Cisco UC and Cisco Unified Presence Server

C. Cisco Expressway-C and Cisco Expressway-E platforms

D. Cisco UCS E-Series and Cisco UCM

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X8-11/Cisco-Expressway-Basic-Configuration-Deployment-Guide-X8-11-4.pdf

Question 14:

Which two statements about Cisco Webex Video Mesh Nodes are true? (Choose two.)

A. When Expressway Core works with VMN clusters, Expressway Core decides which VMN is used for signaling/media connection.

B. Cloud-registered devices choose a VMN cluster based on the lowest STUN round trip delay.

C. The cascading traffic between VMN must bypass the firewall.

D. When Cisco Unified Communications Manager works with multiple VMNs, Cisco Unified CM decides which VMN is used for signaling connection.

E. A VMN can terminate a media connection while operating in maintenance mode.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator attempted to log in, but Jabber clients cannot log in via mobile and remote access. How is this issue resolved?

Latest Cisco 300-820 Exam Practice Questions 15

A. Skype for Business mode must be disabled on the DNS server because it conflicts with Jabber login requirements.

B. The domain pod1.local must be deprovisioned from the Webex cloud for Jabber logins.

C. A DNS SRV record must be created for _collab-edge._tls.pod1.local that points to the Expressway-E.

D. The username [email protected] is invalid. The user should instead sign-in simply as jabberuser.

Correct Answer: C

...

Future Trends in Cisco Collaboration (2025 and Beyond)

The future of Cisco Collaboration lies in AI, zero-trust security, and hybrid cloud integration.
As a CLCEI-certified professional, you’ll be at the center of these transformations:

AI-driven meeting intelligence via Webex AI Assistant.

Zero-Trust Collaboration Frameworks integrating OAuth and MDM security.

Multi-cloud compatibility between Cisco Expressway, Zoom, and Microsoft Teams.

API-driven automation using Webex REST APIs for meeting scheduling.

Cisco-certified experts will play key roles in shaping secure, intelligent enterprise communication.

Career Path and Salary Growth After Certification

Earning the Cisco 300-820 certification opens the door to advanced roles within the CCNP Collaboration pathway.

Next steps include:

350-801 CLCOR – Core Collaboration Exam

Cisco DevNet Specialist – Automation & Development

CCIE Collaboration – Expert-level certification

According to Glassdoor 2025, professionals holding Cisco Collaboration certifications earn 22–35% higher average salaries globally.

FAQs

Q1: Are Leads4Pass 300-820 dumps updated to the latest version?
Yes. Leads4Pass updates all exam questions weekly based on Cisco’s latest blueprint.

Q2: How can I open the VCE file?
Use the VCE Exam Simulator, which perfectly replicates the real Cisco test interface.

Q3: Does passing 300-820 automatically earn the CCNP certification?
No. You must also pass the 350-801 CLCOR core exam to achieve CCNP Collaboration.

Q4: How long is the certification valid?
Cisco certifications remain valid for 3 years, renewable via Continuing Education (CE) credits.

Q5: Does Leads4Pass offer after-sale support?
Yes. They provide 365 updates and a 7-day refund guarantee.

Conclusion

You now have a complete understanding of the Cisco 300-820 exam, including the latest syllabus, technical focus areas, and the most effective study approach.
By combining hands-on lab experience with the Leads4Pass 300-820 dumps PDF and VCE simulations, you can confidently aim for success on your first attempt.

👉 Visit https://www.leads4pass.com/300-820.html
Start your journey to becoming a certified Cisco Collaboration professional today.

Latest updated CCDP 300-920 dumps from Lead4Pass

September 21, 2022

admin

5:02 am

Candidates use the latest updated Cisco Certified DevNet Professional (CCDP) 300-920 dumps from leads4pass: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-920.html, to help you get past the hurdle and successfully pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam.

leads4pass 300-920 dumps provide PDF files and a VCE exam engine to help you practice 300-920 DEVWBX exam questions quickly and easily. The latest updated 300-920 dumps contain 60 exam questions and answers, verified by IT experts to be true and effective.

Share 13 CCDP 300-920 dumps PDF:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1qSUFaHY2T85dweGiJgUn5RVDy8RRukVE/

Read CCDP 300-920 dumps exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questions	Exam name	Release time	From	Previous issue
15	Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)	Sep 21, 2022	leads4pass	Aug 26, 2022

New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. A developer must construct an HTTP Request to use the XML API to set a Personal Meeting Room PIN for a given user. Which code completes the code to create the request?

A. xmlhttp.open("GET", "https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService");

B. xmlhttp.open("PATCH", "https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService");

C. xmlhttp.open("PUT", "https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService");

D. xmlhttp.open("POST", "https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService");

Correct Answer: D

The post method can be used for the HTTP request that sets up a personal meeting room PIN for a user.

New Question 2:

Which expression is a valid Webex Teams webhook filter?

A. [email protected]+roomId=abc123

B. [email protected]=abc123

C. [email protected]=abc123

D. [email protected],roomId=abc123

Correct Answer: C

You can also use more than one filter in a webhook. To use multiple filters, combine them with the "and" symbol. For example, to create a webhook that only sends notifications when a specific person performs an action in a specific room, such as sending a message or creating a membership, combine the personEmail and roomId filters.

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/guides/webhooks

New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. Which code for blank lines 26, 27, and 28 gives invitees 900 seconds before the scheduled time to join the meeting, sets the meeting to last for 30 minutes, and sets the meeting timezone to Pacific US?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://github.com/cisco-ie/webex-api-client

New Question 4:

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user "Read-only administrator privileges" in the Webex Control Hub.

B. Create an Integration app with all "spark_compliance" read scopes enabled.

C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API "SetUser" to update the user\'s "" value to "TRUE".

D. Configure the user as a "Compliance Officer" in the Webex Control Hub.

E. Create a Bot app with all "webex_compliance" read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/spark/esp/Webex-Teams-Security-Frequently-Asked-Questions.pdf

New Question 5:

What happens if a meeting is in progress when a DelMeeting request is sent in the Webex Meetings XML API?

A. The meeting host is notified and prompted to allow the meeting to be deleted.

B. The DelMeeting request drops all call-in users and deletes the meeting.

C. The DelMeeting request waits until the meeting is completed and then deletes the meeting.

D. The DelMeeting request results in an error.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://pdfslide.net/documents/webex-we.html (p.216)

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status code, based on this code snippet?

A. 401

B. 403

C. 429

D. 501

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/messages/get-message-details

New Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. On line 4, the script retrieves a context from a DOM element that was generated from a server-side component. How does that server-side component obtain the value for the `context\' element?

A. by opening a dialog asking the end-user to paste his personal access token

B. by completing an authorization code grant flow using the identifier and secret of an OAuth integration

C. by embedding the access token of a Bot account

D. by creating a guest token using the identifier and secret of a Guest Issuer application

Correct Answer: B

New Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. What causes the error message?

A. xapi must be enabled for promises.

B. HttpClient AllowInsecureHTTPS has not been enabled.

C. The NODE_TLS_REJECT_UNAUTHORIZED environment variable must be set to 0.

D. HttpClient must be changes to HttpsClient.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://help.webex.com/en-us/nthg6le/Sending-HTTP-Requests-from-a-Board-Room-or-Desk-Device

New Question 9:

A Webex Teams bot is deployed but soon it stops responding. Which two explanations are the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. A new webhook was created, which marks the old webhook as inactive.

B. The web server that is set to receive webhooks is not configured to return a 200 message. And the webhook is disabled.

C. The webhook secret is expired and must be refreshed.

D. The refresh token is not being used.

E. The bot owner regenerated the access token on developer.webex.com.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://developer.authorize.net/api/reference/features/webhooks.html

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. A snippet from the XSD schema of the Webex Meeting XML API LstRecordingResponse\' element is listed in the exhibit. Assuming that a variable namedresp\' exists that contains the XML response from a successful `LstRecording\' request, which code snippet correctly generates a simple report that lists meeting names and recording file download links?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 11:

With CE 9.8 and above, which two statements are correct when an application is sending and receiving data over a connection established with an xAPI interface? (Choose two.)

A. All Serial, SSH, and WebSockets can be used to send and receive data.

B. HttpClient can be used to send requests but not receive responses.

C. HttpFeedback is the only option to receive data.

D. The HttpClient command can be used to send requests and read responses over HTTP.

E. WebSockets is the only option to send and receive data.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce98/sx-mx-dx-room-kit-boards-customization-guide-ce98.pdf

New Question 12:

Which element is needed to build a Web application that authenticates Webex users and can post messages under the user\'s identity?

A. OAuth integration configured with the `messages_write\' scope

B. bot access token

C. Guest Issuer application

D. self-signed certificate that is created by a public authority

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/blog/real-world-walkthrough-of-building-an-oauth-webex-integration

New Question 13:

Which two filters are valid for limiting a webhook? (Choose two.)

A. roomId=

B. personId!=

C. spaceId=

D. personId=$spaceId=

E. personId=$roomId=

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/guides/webhooks

New Question 14:

Which Webex Teams webhook resource type indicates that a user interacted with a card?

A. buttonActions

B. attachmentActions

C. webhookCardActions

D. cardActions

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/guides/webhooks

New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. An end user reports that the speed dial button is not working on their Webex Device, and when loading into the Macro Editor, this error was presented. On which line is the incorrect syntax?

A. line 4

B. line 14

C. line 15

D. line 22

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/telepresence-and-video/ce9-2-1-macro-framework-discussions/td-p/3220093

...

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New Question 1:

Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting to the Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering

B. Connection Reputation Filtering

C. Talos Reputation Filtering

D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

Correct Answer: A

New Question 2:

Which benefit does enabling external spam quarantine on Cisco SMA provide?

A. ability to back up spam quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console

B. access to the spam quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete

C. ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate

D. ability to consolidate spam quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESA to one central console

Correct Answer: D

New Question 3:

What are the two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject

B. work queue

C. action

D. delivery

E. quarantine

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 4:

Which two action types are performed by Cisco ESA message filters? (Choose two.)

A. non-final actions

B. filter actions

C. discard actions

D. final actions

E. quarantine actions

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 5:

Which setting affects the aggressiveness of spam detection?

A. protection level

B. spam threshold

C. spam timeout

D. maximum depth of recursion scan

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118220-technote-esa-00.html

New Question 6:

What is the order of virus scanning when multilayer antivirus scanning is configured?

A. The default engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

B. The Sophos engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

C. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the default engine scans for viruses second.

D. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the Sophos engine scans for viruses second.

Correct Answer: C

If you configure multi-layer anti-virus scanning, the Cisco appliance performs virus scanning with the McAfee engine first and the Sophos engine second. It scans messages using both engines unless the McAfee engine detects a virus. If the McAfee engine detects a virus, the Cisco appliance performs the anti-virus actions (repairing, quarantining, etc.) defined for the mail policy.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_01011.html

New Question 7:

Which action must be taken before a custom quarantine that is being used can be deleted?

A. Delete the quarantine that is assigned to a filter.

B. Delete the quarantine that is not assigned to a filter.

C. Delete only the unused quarantine.

D. Remove the quarantine from the message action of a filter.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011111.html

New Question 8:

What is the maximum message size that can be configured for encryption on the Cisco ESA?

A. 20 MB

B. 25 MB

C. 15 MB

D. 30 MB

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/117972-technote-esa-00.html

New Question 9:

An analyst creates a new content dictionary to use with Forged Email Detection. Which entry will be added to the dictionary?

A. mycompany.com

B. Alpha Beta

C. ^Alpha\ Beta$

D. [email protected]

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/email-security-appliance/whitepaper_C11-737596.html

New Question 10:

Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist?

A. message filter

B. antivirus scanning

C. outbreak filter

D. antispam scanning

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/214269-filter-to-handle-messages-that-skipped-d.html

New Question 11:

Which two query types are available when an LDAP profile is configured? (Choose two.)

A. proxy consolidation

B. user

C. recursive

D. group

E. routing

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011010.html

New Question 12:

Which action is a valid fallback when a client certificate is unavailable during SMTP authentication on Cisco ESA?

A. LDAP Query

B. SMTP AUTH

C. SMTP TLS

D. LDAP BIND

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011011.html

New Question 13:

Email encryption is configured on a Cisco ESA that uses CRES.

Which action is taken on a message when CRES is unavailable?

A. It is required.

B. It is sent in clear text.

C. It is dropped and an error message is sent to the sender.

D. It is encrypted by a Cisco encryption appliance.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/117863-configure-esa-00.html

New Question 14:

Which two features of Cisco Email Security are added to a Sender Group to protect an organization against email threats? (Choose two.)

A. NetFlow

B. geolocation-based filtering

C. heuristic-based filtering

D. senderbase reputation filtering

E. content disarm and reconstruction

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 15:

Which two steps configure Forged Email Detection? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a content dictionary with executive email addresses.

B. Configure a filter to use the Forged Email Detection rule and dictionary.

C. Configure a filter to check the Header From value against the Forged Email Detection dictionary.

D. Enable Forged Email Detection on the Security Services page.

E. Configure a content dictionary with friendly names.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://explore.cisco.com/esa-feature-enablement/user-guide-for-async-11

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August 26, 2022

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New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the steps to restore an automatic device registration failure on the standby Cisco FMC from the left into the correct order on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 2:

What is the result of enabling Cisco FTD clustering?

A. For the dynamic routing feature, if the master unit fails, the newly elected master unit maintains all existing connections.

B. Integrated Routing and Bridging are supported on the master unit.

C. Site-to-site VPN functionality is limited to the master unit, and all VPN connections are dropped if the master unit fails.

D. All Firepower appliances can support Cisco FTD clustering.

Check answer ↴

New Question 3:

Which two conditions are necessary for high availability to function between two Cisco FTD devices? (Choose two.)

A. The units must be the same version

B. Both devices can be part of a different group that must be in the same domain when configured within the FMC.

C. The units must be different models if they are part of the same series.

D. The units must be configured only for firewall routed mode.

E. The units must be the same model.

Check answer ↴

New Question 4:

On the advanced tab under inline set properties, which allows interfaces to emulate a passive interface?

A. transparent inline mode

B. TAP mode

C. strict TCP enforcement

D. propagate link state

Check answer ↴

New Question 5:

What are the minimum requirements to deploy a managed device inline?

A. inline interfaces, security zones, MTU, and mode

B. passive interface, MTU, and mode

C. inline interfaces, MTU, and mode

D. passive interface, security zone, MTU, and mode

Check answer ↴

New Question 6:

What is the difference between an inline and an inline tap on Cisco Firepower?

A. Inline tap mode can send a copy of the traffic to another device.

B. Inline tap mode does full packet capture.

C. Inline mode cannot do SSL decryption.

D. Inline mode can drop malicious traffic.

Check answer ↴

New Question 7:

With Cisco Firepower Threat Defense software, which interface mode must be configured to passively receive traffic that passes through the appliance?

A. inline set

B. passive

C. routed

D. inline tap

Check answer ↴

New Question 8:

Which two deployment types support high availability? (Choose two.)

A. transparent

B. routed

C. clustered

D. intra-chassis multi-instance

E. virtual appliance in public cloud

Check answer ↴

New Question 9:

Which protocol establishes network redundancy in a switched Firepower device deployment?

A. STP

B. HSRP

C. GLBP

D. VRRP

Check answer ↴

New Question 10:

Which interface type allows packets to be dropped?

A. passive

B. inline

C. ERSPAN

D. TAP

Check answer ↴

New Question 11:

Which Cisco Firepower Threat Defense, which two interface settings are required when configuring a routed interface? (Choose two.)

A. Redundant Interface

B. EtherChannel

C. Speed

D. Media Type

E. Duplex

Check answer ↴

New Question 12:

Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported in Firepower Threat Defense without using FlexConfig? (Choose two.)

A. EIGRP

B. OSPF

C. static routing

D. IS-IS

E. BGP

Check answer ↴

New Question 13:

Which policy rule is included in the deployment of a local DMZ during the initial deployment of a Cisco NGFW through the Cisco FMC GUI?

A. a default DMZ policy for which only a user can change the IP addresses.

B. deny IP any

C. no policy rule is included

D. permit IP any

Check answer ↴

New Question 14:

What are two application layer preprocessors? (Choose two.)

A. CIFS

B. IMAP

C. SSL

D. DNP3

E. ICMP

Check answer ↴

New Question 15:

Which two OSPF routing features are configured in Cisco FMC and propagated to Cisco FTD? (Choose two.)

A. OSPFv2 with IPv6 capabilities

B. virtual links

C. SHA authentication to OSPF packets

D. area boundary router type 1 LSA filtering

E. MD5 authentication to OSPF packets

Check answer ↴

...

Verify the answer:

Numbers:

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

IMAGE

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July 5, 2021

admin

7:04 am

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Cisco 300-810 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two methods does Cisco Jabber use for contact searching in an on-premises deployment model? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. XMPP
C. UDS
D. LDAP
E. SIP
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/presence.html

QUESTION 2
Which function of the Cisco IM and Presence high availability solution is true?
A. When the server has been restored to a normal state, user sessions remain on the backup server.
B. When an event takes place, the end user sessions are not moved from the failed server to the backup.
C. When the server has been restored, the server automatically fails back.
D. When a high availability event takes place, the end user sessions are moved from the failed server to the backup.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-im-presenceservice/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html

QUESTION 3
Which service must be activated on Cisco Unity Connection to utilize LDAP synchronization?
A. Cisco Tomcat
B. Cisco Sync Agent
C. Cisco DirSync
D. Cisco RIS Data Collector
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/10x/administration/guide/10xcucsagx/10xcucsag120.html

QUESTION 4
Which component of SAML SSO defines the transport mechanism that is used to deliver the SAML messages between
entities?
A. profiles
B. metadata
C. assertions
D. bindings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which SAML 2.0 profile is supported by Cisco UCM, Cisco Unified IM and Presence, and Unity Connection version 10.x
and above?
A. single logout
B. web browser SSO
C. name identifier management
D. identity provider discovery
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q6

Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in
the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is
configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this
issue?
A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Feature Services.
C. Restart XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Network Services.
D. Activate XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsol-chat-00.html

QUESTION 7
What are two Cisco Jabber 12.6 on-premises deployment types that can be run on a Windows- enabled PC? (Choose
two.)
A. Contact Center Agent
B. IM-only
C. multicloud-based
D. Full UC
E. cloud-based
Correct Answer: BD
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/12_6/cjab_b_on-prem-deployment-ciscojabber_12-6.pdf

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q8

Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to
Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in
the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in?
A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp.
B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM.
C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong.
D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/ta-p/3143446

QUESTION 9
Which two protocols does the Cisco IM Presence service use to federate with external domains? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP
B. SNMP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
E. SMPP
Correct Answer: AC
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/interdomain_federation/11_5_1/cup0_b_interdomain-federation-guide-imp-115.pdf

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. cisco 300-810 questions q10

Which statement is true?
A. If the IMandP node in sub-cluster-1 goes down, then users assigned to it are randomly split between the two
remaining subclusters.
B. The administrator must add one node to each subcluster for high availability.
C. IMandP nodes in each subscluster must be configured from the same OVA template.
D. Each Cisco IMandP subcluster must have the same number of nodes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring DNS for service discovery in a Jabber deployment for on-premises clients. Which snippet will
complete the SRV record name _tcp.example.com?
A. _cisco_uds
B. _collab_edge
C. _xmpp.server
D. _xmpp-client
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2016/pdf/BRKCOL-2344.pdf

QUESTION 12
Which SAML component specifies the mapping of SAML assertion protocol message exchanges with standard
messaging formats or communication protocols such as SOAP exchanges?
A. SAML binding
B. SAML assertion
C. SAML profiles
D. SAML protocol
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_Assertion_Markup_Language

QUESTION 13
SAML SSO is enabled in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What happens when a browser- based client
attempts to access a protected resource on a service provider?
A. The browser follows the redirect and issues an HTTPS GET request to the IdP.
B. The IdP checks for a valid browser session.
C. The service provider generates a SAML authentication request.
D. The SAML request is maintained as a query parameter in the GET request.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/SAML_SSO_deployment_guide/12_5_1/cucm_b_samlsso-deployment-guide-12_5/cucm_b_saml-sso-deployment-guide-12_5_chapter_01.html

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September 10, 2020

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QUESTION 1
Which description of the Cisco Collaboration architecture is true\\’?
A. a flexible network framework designed to enable integration with the collaboration requirements of the customer
B. a flexible collaboration framework designed to support any customer and any user collaboration needs
C. a collaboration framework designed to support the collaboration needs of a typical large enterprise
D. a collaboration framework designed to integrate the existing customer collaboration functionalities with Cisco network
infrastructure
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which option describes the endpoints that are supported on applications that are included under the Cisco Business
Edition 6000 umbrella?
A. all Cisco voice and video endpoints except Cisco Telepresence room systems
B. all Cisco voice and video endpoints except Cisco Telepresence EX Series and Cisco Telepresence room systems
C. all Cisco voice and video endpoints except IEEE 802.11 Wi-Fi endpoints
D. all Cisco voice and video endpoints
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which four options are the main areas of Cisco Collaboration? (Choose four)
A. virtual support
B. flexibility
C. conferencing
D. customer collaboration
E. unified communications
F. social software
G. collaboration endpoints
H. voicemail
Correct Answer: BCEG

QUESTION 4
How does Cisco Collaboration address the need for different endpoints?
A. by introducing Cisco data center unified computing functionalities to support collaboration requirements.
B. by offering various different phones
C. with a consistent user experience regardless of the type or location of the endpoint
D. by focusing on software clients only O E) by enabling WebEx to support video
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What value does Cisco Business Edition 6000 bring to midmarket businesses?
A. enhanced collaboration functionalities by adding only a few additional servers
B. affordable, advanced collaboration functionalities on a single server
C. colocation with the existing telephony system
D. adds video collaboration capabilities on top of the existing telephony system
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which information is provided by the Cisco Partner Proposal Library?
A. proposal templates
B. technical descriptions
C. Cisco pricelist
D. FAQs for Cisco Business Edition 6000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two statements about Cisco Validated Designs and Smart Business Architectures are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Validated Designs provide the proven design of solutions that include only Cisco products and thus ensure single-vendor solutions.
B. Cisco Validated Designs are end-to-end designs that are well-tested and fully documented.
C. Smart Business Architecture guides are available for enterprise-sized deployments only.
D. Smart Business Architecture is a blueprint for delivering the three Cisco architectures in a modular approach.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco online resource provides partners with the most comprehensive set of Cisco BE6000 sales materials that
are aligned to the sales cycle?
A. Cisco Selling Collab Portal
B. Cisco Business Edition 6000 Product home page
C. Cisco Promotions and Incentive
D. Cisco BE6000 Partner Sales Guide
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two operational benefits are provided by Cisco Business Edition 6000 virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. reduced risk because each application runs on a separate physical server
B. reduced costs through integrated management and a scalable platform
C. time savings through easy platform management
D. support for multiple management platforms
E. reduced costs through support for traditional TDM-based voice systems
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which statement describes the key function provided by Cisco Spark?
A. Cisco Spark makes it easier to find experts in your organization.
B. Cisco Spark simplifies teamwork by sharing messages and files, and it lets you meet with different teams, all in one
place.
C. Cisco Spark is available on-premises and in the cloud.
D. Cisco Spark can be integrated with Microsoft Lync.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which three collaboration methods are addressed directly by Cisco Collaboration solutions? (Choose three.)
A. dispersed workforce
B. trust at a distance
C. social media collaboration
D. structured meetings
E. team collaboration
F. find and connect
G. persistent chat
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 12
How many devices are supported by the Cisco BE6000S model?
A. 2500
B. 1000
C. 300
D. 150
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option are a key challenge for customers and their IT teams caused by the evolution of communication tools?
A. skills of the IT teams
B. keeping the organizational structure unchanged while adapting to new collaboration solutions
C. fragmentation and complexity of collaboration tools
D. time for implementation of collaboration hardware
E. managing infrastructure that is not based on Cisco Collaboration
F. costs of collaboration
Correct Answer: D

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Latest updates Cisco 500-490 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation.
B. ISE plays a critical role in SD-Access.
C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it
moves.
D. ISE can provide data about when a specific device connected to the network.
E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. It distributed deployments, failover from primary to secondary Policy Administration Nodes happens automatically.
B. The number of logs that ISE can retain is determined by your disk space.
C. ISE supports IPv6 downloadable ACLs.
D. ISE can detected endpoints whose addresses have been translated via NAT.
E. ISE supports up to 100 Policy Services Nodes.
F. In two-nodes standalone ISE deployments, failover must be done manually.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\'s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up.
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you.
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration.
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which option will help build your customers platform during the discovery phase?
A. business case
B. detailed design
C. POV report
D. high-level design
E. PO
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How would Cisco ISE handle authentication for your printer that does not have a supplicant?
A. ISE would not authenticate the printer as printers are not subject to ISE authentication.
B. ISE would authenticate the printer using 802.1X authentication.
C. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAB.
D. ISE would authenticate the printer using web authentication.
E. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAC RADIUS authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs
B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices
C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set
D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks
E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
What are three ways in which Cisco ISE learns information about devices? (Choose three.)
A. user authentication to the ISE
B. SMTP agents
C. RPC mechanism via HTTPS
D. traffic generated by the device
E. network servers the device has accessed
F. RADIUS attributes
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 8
Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible.
B. Show the customer how to integrate ISE into DNA Center at the end of the demo.
C. Focus on business benefits.
D. Keep the demo at a high level.
E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco product were incorporated into Cisco ISE between ISE releases 2.0 and 2.3?
A. Cisco ASA
B. Cisco ESA
C. Cisco ACS
D. Cisco WSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.)
A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SE, you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than contributing to demo
innovation.
B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations.
C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details.
D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach.
E. During a demo, you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. providing VPN access for any type of device
B. providing information about every device that touches the network
C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection
D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices
E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies
F. allocating resources
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose two.)
A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus
B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements
C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership
D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling
E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRE tunnel to a mobility controller for policy
and application visibility
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\'s discovery process? (Choose two.)
A. Establishing credibility with the customer
B. Working with the customer to develop a reference architecture
C. Referencing the PPDIOO model to effectively facilitate the discussion
D. Gathering information about the current state of the customer\\'s network environment
E. Mapping Cisco innovation to customer\\'s needs
Correct Answer: AD

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Latest updates Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps and pdf, 210-260 Practice Questions and Answers

July 5, 2019

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Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition of the zone pair is missing?
A. It permits all traffic without logging.
B. It drops all traffic.
C. It inspects all traffic.
D. It permits and logs all traffic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall?
A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity.
B. To protect one virtual network segment from another.
C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements.
D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session.
E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks.
Correct Answer: A
The term personal firewall typically applies to the basic software that can control Layer 3 and Layer 4 access to client
machines. HIPS provides several features that offer more robust security than a traditional personal firewall, such as
host intrusion prevention and protection against spyware, viruses, worms, Trojans, and other types of malware. Source:
Cisco Official Certification Guide, Personal Firewalls and Host Intrusion Prevention Systems, p.499

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
Which protocol offers data integrity, encryption, authentication, and antireplay functions for IPsec VPN?
A. AH protocol
B. ESP protocol
C. IKEv2 protocol
D. IKEv1 protocol
Correct Answer: B
IP Security Protocol—Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is a security protocol used to provide confidentiality (encryption), data origin
authentication, integrity, optional antireplay service, and limited traffic flow confidentiality by defeating traffic flow
analysis.
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=24833andamp;seqNum=3

QUESTION 5
Which ports need to be active for AAA server to integrate with Microsoft AD
A. 445 and 8080
B. 443 and 389
C. 445 and 389
D. 443 and 8080
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
Split tunneling is a computer networking concept which allows a mobile user to access dissimilar security domains like a
public network (e.g., the Internet) and a local LAN or WAN at the same time, using the same or different network
connections. This connection state is usually facilitated through the simultaneous use of, a Local Area Network (LAN)
Network Interface Card (NIC), radio NIC, Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) NIC, and VPN client software
application without the benefit of access control. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Split_tunneling

QUESTION 7
You are configuring a NAT rule on a Cisco ASA. Which description of a mapped interface is true?
A. It is mandatory for all firewall modes.
B. It is mandatory for identity NAT only.
C. It is optional in transparent mode.
D. It is optional in routed mode.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which is a key security component of MDM deployment?
A. Using the network-specific installer package
B. Using self-signed certificates to validate the server – generate a self-signed certificate to connect to the server (Deployed
certificates; Issued certificate to the server likely)
C. Using application tunnel
D. Using MS-CHAPv2 as primary EAP method
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
When is the best time to perform an anti-virus signature update?
A. Every time a new update is available.
B. When the local scanner has detected a new virus.
C. When a new virus is discovered in the wild.
D. When the system detects a browser hook.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A
Firewalls are generally designed to be on the network perimeter and can handle dropping a lot of the non- legitimate
traffic (attacks, scans, etc.) very quickly at the ingress interface, often in hardware. An IDS/IPS are, generally speaking,
doing more deep packet inspections and that is a much more computationally expensive undertaking. For that reason,
we prefer to filter what gets to it with the firewall line of defense before engaging the IDS/IPS to analyze the traffic flow.
Source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/discussion/12428821/correct-placement-idsips- network-architecture

QUESTION 11
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A
Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST) is a protocol proposal by Cisco Systems as a replacement for
LEAP. The protocol was designed to address the weaknesses of LEAP while preserving the "lightweight"
implementation. Use of server certificates is optional in EAP-FAST. EAP-FAST uses a Protected Access Credential
(PAC) to establish a TLS tunnel in which client credentials are verified. Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extensible_Authentication_Protocol

QUESTION 12
What are the primary attack methods of VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP hopping
B. Switch spoofing
C. CAM-table overflow
D. Double tagging
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which command do you enter to enable authentication for OSPF on an interface?
A. router(config-if)#ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 CISCOPASS
B. router(config-router)#area 0 authentication message-digest
C. router(config-router)#ip ospf authentication-key CISCOPASS
D. router(config-if)#ip ospf authentication message-digest
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about threat actors is true?
A. They are any company assets that are threatened.
B. They are any assets that are threatened.
C. They are perpetrators of attacks.
D. They are victims of attacks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data normalization
B. data availability
C. data protection
D. data signature
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are the three metrics, or andquot; scores,andquot; of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System
(CVSS)? (Select all that apply.)
A. Baseline score
B. Base score
C. Environmental score
D. Temporal score
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable
component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two potions are the primary 5-tuple components? (Choose two)
A. destination IP address
B. header length
C. sequence number
D. checksum
E. source IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the Exhibit. A customer reports that they cannot access your organization\\'s website. Which option is a
possible reason that the customer cannot access the website? leads4pass 210-255 exam question q6

A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial-of-service.
B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet censors.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are not components of the 5-tuple of flow in NetFlow? (Select all that apply.)
A. Source IP address
B. Flow record ID
C. Gateway
D. Source port
E. Destination port
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which CVSS metric describes the conditions that are beyond the attacker\\'s control that must exist to exploit the
vulnerability?
A. User interaction
B. Attack vector
C. attack complexity
D. privileges required
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which signature type results in a legitime alert been dismissed?
A. True negative
B. False negative
C. True Positive
D. False Positive
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following Linux file systems not only supports journaling but also modifies important data structures of the
file system, such as the ones destined to store the file data for better performance and reliability?
A. GRUB
B. LILO
C. Ext4
D. FAT32
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high. Which potential result is true? leads4pass 210-255 exam question q12

A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is one of the main goals of the CSIRT?
A. To configure the organization\\'s firewalls
B. To monitor the organization\\'s IPS devices
C. To minimize and control the damage associated with incidents, provide guidance for mitigation, and work to prevent
future incidents
D. To hire security professionals who will be part of the InfoSec team of the organization.
Correct Answer: C

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[Free share] Cisco 300-430 Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1: Where is a Cisco OEAP enabled on a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller?

Question 2: Which Cisco vMSE Release 8 option must the engineer deploy?

Question 3: Which cause of this issue is true?

Question 4: What is configured to use more than one port on the OEAP to extend the wired network\'s?

Question 5: Which action ensures that access to the network is restricted for these users unless the correct authentication mechanism is configured?

Question 6:

Question 7: Which customizable security report on Cisco Prime Infrastructure will show rogue APs detected since a point in time?

Question 8: Which marking value must be trusted on port Fa 0/6?

Question 9: How does the engineer accomplish this task without using Cisco ISE?

Question 10: Which option is an impact of BYOD should be considered?

Question 11: How should the CAPWAP multicast group address be assigned during configuration?

Question 12: Which two configurations on the wired network ensure end-to-end QoS?

Question 13: Which controller mapping must be modified for this feature?

Question 14: What is the cause of the problem?

Question 15:

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Question 2:

Question 3:

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Future Trends in Cisco Collaboration (2025 and Beyond)

Career Path and Salary Growth After Certification

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Effective Feb. 3, 2026, the 300-820 CLCEI exam will be renamed to 300-820 CLHCT: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Hybrid and Cloud Technologies
First date to test for v2.0 exam will be February 3, 2026.
View 300-820 CLHCT v2.0 Exam Topics