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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Some routers have been configured with default routes. 100-105 dumps What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
100-105 dumps
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 8
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?
A. half-duplex operation
B. broadcast storms
C. network segmentation
D. multicasting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two.)
A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface.
B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface.
C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets.
D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic.
E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access list.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?
A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19
B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0
C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0
D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0
E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0
F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?
A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address
B. allows remote management of the switch
C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Exam Code: 300-101
Total Questions: 424 Q&As
300-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
300-101 dumps Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server. Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
!
interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0
interface serial 0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
!
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node? 300-101 dumps
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections?
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
How is authentication handled with OSPFv3?
A. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by SHA-1 authentication.
B. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by MD5 authentication
C. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv6 IPsec
D. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv4 IPsec
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. 300-101 dumps The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Voice over IP (VoIP). The system sends UDP datagrams containing the voice data between communicating hosts. When areas of the network become busy, some of the datagrams arrive at their destination out of order. What happens when this occurs?
A. UDP will send an ICMP Information request message to the source host.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order in which they arrive.
C. UDP will drop the datagrams that arrive out of order.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data into the …
Correct Answer: B

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[2017 New Cisco Dumps] Update Free Cisco 200-105 Dumps Latest PDF Training Resources And VCE Youtube Demo

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As

QUESTION 1
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command? 200-105 dumps
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?
A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? 200-105 dumps (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-105 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 9
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
A. To identify applications causing congestion
B. To authorize user network access
C. To report and alert link up / down instances
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 11
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? 200-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 12
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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[2017 New Cisco Dumps] Cisco 200-125 Dumps Latest PDF Questions And Answers Update Youtube Demo

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION: 1
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Answer: B, D

QUESTION 2
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. To identify applications causing congestion
B. To authorize user network access
C. To report and alert link up / down instances
D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization
E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network
F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION: 4
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the sameremote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION: 6
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Answer: B, D, E

QUESTION: 7
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used? 200-125 dumps
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Answer: B
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 8
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION: 9
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Answer: D, E

QUESTION: 10
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION: 12
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Answer: B, G

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Office 365
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Exam Code: 070-347
Total Questions: 219 Q&As
070-347 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 license plan. Employees are issued laptop computers that are configured with a standard image. The image includes an installation of Office 365 ProPlus that must be activated by the employees. An employee recently received a new laptop computer to replace an older laptop. The older laptop will be reimaged. When the employee attempts to start Word for the first time, she receives a message saying that she cannot activate it because she has already activated five devices. You need to help the employee activate Office on her new laptop computer.
What should you do?
A. Assign a second E3 license to the employee.
B. Remove the employee’s E3 license and then assign a new E3 license.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the employee and deactivate the old laptop.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal by using your Global Admin account and then deactivate the old laptop.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Executive employees have been assigned E3 licenses. Non-executive employees have been assigned El licenses. 070-347 dumps An employee who is not on the executive team wants to communicate with executive team members by using Microsoft Lync instant messaging.
You need to ensure that the employee can use Lync.
What should you do?
A. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and use Office on Demand.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then run the Office 365 Desktop Setup.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install Office 365 ProPlus.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install the Lync Basic desktop client.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has a single Active Directory Domain Services domain. As part of the Office 365 deployment, the company is preparing to deploy Office Telemetry. You need to disguise file names and document titles, while still collecting the telemetry data.
What should you do?
A. In the Telemetry Dashboard, display only files that are used by multiple users.
B. On each client computer, edit the registry to prevent telemetry logging.
C. In the Telemetry Dashboard, obfuscate the document name, title, and path.
D. In the Telemetry Dashboard, apply a label named Private to employees.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your company has an Office 365 Small Business subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint Online administrator. The company wants to have two separate public websites with different URLs. You need to configure the environment to support the public websites.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Enterprise, Education, and Government.
B. Create one public website and one subsite, and then configure a redirect.
C. Create two public websites and configure the DNS records for each site.
D. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Midsize Business.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend which task is required to prepare Active Directory for the planned Exchange Server 2013 implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. On any domain controller in the Paris office, run setup.exe /preparead.
B. On any domain controller in the Amsterdam office, run setup.exe /preparead.
C. On any domain controller in the Paris office, run setup.exe /preparealldomains.
D. On any domain controller in the Amsterdam office, run setup.exe /preparedomain.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to identify which business requirement will be met by implementing the planned hardware load balancer.
Which business requirement should you identify?
A. Minimize the hardware costs required for a load balancing solution.
B. Minimize the software costs required for a load balancing solution.
C. Minimize user interruptions if a service fails on a Client Access server.
D. Minimize user interruptions if a service fails on a Mailbox server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers.
The company has the following client computer software:
– Windows 7 and Windows 8
– 32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013
When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view. 070-347 dumps
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A company is upgrading its 3,000 client computers to Office 365 ProPlus. The company uses the Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues. The Telemetry Agent is deployed to all client computers. The telemetry environment is described in the following table.
070-347 dumps
You need to ensure that telemetry data is collected for more than 20 client computers at a time.
What should you do?
A. Migrate the telemetry database to a computer that runs SQL Server 2008.
B. Use the Registry Editor to trigger the data collection.
C. Use Group Policy to set the MaxConnectionsPerServer setting to 100.
D. Migrate the Telemetry Processor to a computer that runs Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Your company plans to use Office 365 and Microsoft SharePoint Online. Another employee provisions the company’s Office 365 tenant. You discover that the employee can create and manage SharePoint site collections. You need to prevent the employee from creating or managing site collections.
From which role should you remove the employee?
A. Service administrator
B. SharePoint Online administrator
C. Global administrator
D. Site collection administrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. All users have been assigned E3 licenses and use Office Web Apps to create and edit documents. A user attempts to access documents stored on a USB flash drive. When the user double-clicks a file that is stored on the USB flash drive, an error message states that Windows can’t open the file and needs to know what program to use to open it. You need to ensure that the user can start Office applications and edit Office documents by double-clicking files.
What should you do on the user’s computer?
A. Use Office on Demand.
B. Install Office 365 ProPlus from the Office 365 portal.
C. Copy the files from the USB flash drive to the local hard drive.
D. Install and configure Microsoft Word Viewer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 plan. The company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online public website that is currently configured to use the onmicrosoft.com domain name. 070-347 dumps
The company purchases a new domain name. You need to change the address of the SharePoint Online public website to the new domain name.
What should you do first?
A. In the SharePoint Online Administration Center, add the new domain.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the new domain.
C. Create a new site collection and assign it the new domain.
D. Create a new public website and assign it to the new domain.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company’s environment includes Office 2007, Office 2010, Office 2013, Windows 7, and Windows 8.The company uses Office Telemetry. You need to collect Office version usage data for an upcoming migration to Office 365 ProPlus.
What should you do?
A. Open documents by using Office 2007, Office 2010, or Office 2013 on client computers that run Windows 7.
B. Use the Get-MsolUsercmdlet with the ServiceStatus parameter.
C. Search network shares for Office documents and export the results to a .log file.
D. Search local computers for Office documents and export the results to a .csv file.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE: Enterprise Devices and Apps
Exam Name: Deploying Windows Desktops and Enterprise Applications
Exam Code: 70-695
Total Questions: 95 Q&As
70-695 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the personal devices that run Windows 8.1 meet the corporate security policy requirements.
What should you do first?
A. Create a federated trust with Windows Azure Active Directory.
B. Create a federated identity relationship with the Microsoft Federation Gateway.
C. Enroll the device in Windows Intune.
D. Join the devices to the domain by using an offline domain join.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft lntune subscription.
You have three security groups named Security1, Security2 and Security3. Security1 is the parent group of Security2.
Security2 has l00 users. 70-695 dumps
You need to change the parent group of Security2 to be Security3.
What should you do first?
A. Edit the properties of Security1.
B. Edit the properties of Security2.
C. Delete security2.
D. Remove all users from Security2.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your company has a standard power scheme for the sales team. You are replacing a laptop for a sale associate.
You import the power scheme onto the new laptop.
You need to App1y the power scheme.
What should you do?
A. Modify the power scheme under Power and Sleep settings.
B. Run the gpupdate /F command.
C. Run the powercfg /S command.
D. Modify the advanced power settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You administer a Windows 10 Enterprise computer that runs Hyper-V. The computer hosts a virtual machine with multiplesnap shots. The virtual machine uses one virtual CPU and 5l2 MB of RAM. You discover that the virtual machine pauses automatically and diSP1ays the state as paused-critical. You need to identify the component that is causing the error.
Which component should you identify?
A. no virtual switch defined
B. insufficientmemory
C. insufficient hard disk space
D. insufficient number of virtual processors
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are an lT consultant for small and mid-sized business.
One of your clients wants to start using Virtual Smart Cards on its Windows 10 Enterprise laptops and tablets. Before
implementing any changes, the client wants to ensure that the laptops and tablets support VirtualSmartCards. You need to verify that the client laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that each laptop and tablet has a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version l.2 or greater.
B. Ensure that Bitlocker Drive Encryption is enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets.
C. Ensure that each laptop and tablet can read a physical smart card.
D. EnsurethatthelaptopsandtabletsarerunningWindows 10Enterpriseedition.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Your customer has one office. All software and hardware purchasing is centralized. You need to define the scope of a SAM program assessment for the customer. 70-695 dumps
Which information should you collect?
A. current license versions
B. install, move, add, change (IMAC) activities
C. list of people responsible for SAM sign-off
D. quantity of server licenses
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager that contains the objects shown in the following table.
70-695 dumps
You are creating a new configuration baseline.
You need to identify which objects you can use as evaluation conditions within the new configuration baseline.
Which three objects should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Object1
B. Object2
C. Object3
D. Object4
E. Object5
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 8
You need to resolve the Windows update issue.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in Active Directory.
B. Synchronize software updates from Configuration Manager.
C. Create an automatic deployment rule.
D. Add distribution points to each branch office.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A company has l00 client computers thatrun Windows 10 Enterprise. A new company policy requires that all client computers have static lPv6 addresses. You need to assign static lPv6 addresses to the client computers.
Which Network Shell (netsh) command should you run?
A. add address
B. set interface
C. set global
D. set address
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You deploy several tablet PCs that run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You need to minimize power usage when the user presses the sleep button.
What should you do?
A. ln Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Sleep.
B. ln Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Hibernate.
C. Configure the active power pLAN to set the system cooling policy to passive.
D. Disable the C-State control in the computer’s BlOS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You need to prepare Server11. 70-695 dumps
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a file named No_sms_on_drive in the root of drive C.
B. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to Automatic.
C. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary content location to E.
D. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to E.
E. Copy Prepdrv.inf to the root of drive C.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
All client computers have the Configuration Manager client installed.
Users are members of the local Administrators group on their respective computer.
You are preparing the documentation for the support staff to remediate client issues.
You need to identify which issues will be resolved by auto-remediation.
Which three issues should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The WMI service was stopped by a user.
B. The WMI service was disabled by a user.C. The SMS Agent Host service was removed by a user.
D. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were deleted by a user.
E. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were disabled by a user.
F. The SMS Agent Host service was stopped by a user.
Correct Answer: ABF

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Exam Code: 70-412
Total Questions: 424 Q&As
70-412 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains one domain. Adatum.com contains a child domain named child.adatum.- com.
Contoso.com has a one-way forest trust to adatum.com. Selective authentication is enabled on the forest trust.
Several user accounts are migrated from child.adatum.com to adatum.com. Users report that after the migration, they fail to access resources in contoso.com. The users suc- cessfully accessed the resources in contoso.com before the accounts were migrated.
You need to ensure that the migrated users can access the resources in contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Replace the existing forest trust with an external trust.
B. Run netdom and specify the /quarantine attribute.
C. Disable SID filtering on the existing forest trust.
D. Disable selective authentication on the existing forest trust.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains a perimeter network and an internal network. The internal network con- tains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.1 infrastructure. The infrastructure uses Active Directory as the attribute store.
You plan to deploy a federation server proxy to a server named Server2 in the perimeter net- work.
You need to identify which value must be included in the certificate that is deployed to Server2.
What should you identify?
A. The FQDN of the AD FS server
B. The name of the Federation Service
C. The name of the Active Directory domain
D. The public IP address of Server2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Failover Clustering feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in a failover cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 contains a cluster disk resource. 70-412 dumps
A developer creates an application named App1. App1 is NOT a cluster-aware application. App1 runs as a service. App1 stores date on the cluster disk resource.
You need to ensure that App1 runs in Cluster1. The solution must minimize development effort.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole
B. Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole
C. Add-ClusterScaleOutFileServerRole
D. Add-ClusterServerRole
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domains.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The forest has a two-way realm trust to a Kerberos realm named adatum.com.
You discover that users in adatum.com can only access resources in the root domain of contoso.- com.
You need to ensure that the adatum.com users can access the resources in all of the domains in the forest.
What should you do in the forest?
A. Delete the realm trust and create a forest trust.
B. Delete the realm trust and create three external trusts.
C. Modify the incoming realm trust.
D. Modify the outgoing realm trust.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and childl.contoso.com. The domains contain three domain con- trollers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-412 dumps
You need to ensure that the KDC support for claims, compound authentication, and kerberos ar- moring setting is enforced in the child1.contoso.com domain.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
B. Upgrade DC11 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
C. Raise the domain functional level of childl.contoso.com.
D. Raise the domain functional level of contoso.com.
E. Raise the forest functional level of contoso.com.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Your company recently deployed a new Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The first domain controller in the forest runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to identify the time-to-live (TTL) value for domain referrals to the NETLOGON and SYSVOL shared folders. 70-412 dumps
Which tool should you use?
A. Ultrasound
B. Replmon
C. Dfsdiag
D. Frsutil
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The forest contains a sin- gle domain. The domain contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the fol- lowing table.
70-412 dumps
You need to update the schema to support a domain controller that will run Windows Server 2012 R2.
On which server should you run adprep.exe?
A. Server1
B. DC3
C. DC2
D. DC1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains two servers named HV1 and HV2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed.
HV1 hosts 25 virtual machines. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks are stored in D:\VM.
You shut down all of the virtual machines on HV1.
You copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2.
You need to start all of the virtual machines on HV2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Import-VMInitialReplication cmdlet.
B. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard.
C. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the New Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Run the Import-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Your network contains two Web servers named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. The NLB cluster contains an application named App1 that is accessed by using the URL http://app1.contoso.com.
You plan to perform maintenance on Server1.
You need to ensure that all new connections to App1 are directed to Server2. The solution must not disconnect the existing connections to Server1.
What should you run?
A. The Set-NlbCluster cmdlet
B. The Set-NlbClusterNode cmdlet
C. The Stop-NlbCluster cmdlet
D. The Stop-NlbClusterNode cmdlet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Your company has offices in Montreal, New York, and Amsterdam. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office. 70-412 dumps All of the sites connect to each other by using the DEFAULTIPSITELINK site link.
You need to ensure that only between 20:00 and 08:00, the domain controllers in the Montreal office replicate the Active Directory changes to the domain controllers in the Amsterdam office.
The solution must ensure that the domain controllers in the Montreal and the New York offices can replicate the Active Directory changes any time of day.
What should you do?
A. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DEFAULTIPSITE1INK. Modify the schedule of DEFAULTIPSITE1INK.
B. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of DEFAU LTIPSITE1INK.
C. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DEFAULTIPSITELINK. Modify the schedule of the new site link.
D. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of the new site link.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Exam Code: 70-331
Total Questions: 226 Q&As
70-331 dumps
QUESTION 1
A SharePoint farm includes two front-end web servers, one application server, and two clustered servers that run Microsoft SQL Server. The SharePoint Foundation Web Application service is not running on the application server.
You plan to configure the SharePoint farm to receive and store email messages and email message attachments in libraries.
You need to ensure that users can send email messages and attachments directly to libraries across the entire farm. You must accomplish this goal by using the least amount of effort.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each application server.
B. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each front-end web server.
C. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each application server.
D. Enable incoming email by using the Automatic settings mode.
E. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each front-end web server.
F. Enable incoming email by using the Advanced settings mode.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 2
A SharePoint farm has a very large search index.
Users report that search results are too broad.
You need to ensure that properties can be used to refine search results.
Which two options should you configure? 70-331 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Searchable
B. Queryable
C. Complete Matching
D. Retrievable
E. Refinable
F. Sortable
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3
You are managing a site collection in a SharePoint farm.
You need to configure the minimum level of permissions necessary for users to manage lists in the site collection.
What permission level should you configure?
A. View Only
B. Edit
C. Full Control
D. Read
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company is planning to upgrade from SharePoint 2010 to SharePoint 2013.
You need to find out the web traffic capacity of the SharePoint farm by using a Microsoft Visual Studio Team System project file.
Which tool should you use?
A. Network Monitor
B. SharePoint Health Analyzer
C. SharePoint Diagnostic Studio
D. Load Testing Kit (LTK)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have a SharePoint Server 2013 server farm.
You need to configure the People Picker control to display only users who are members of the current site collection.
Which tool should you use?
A. Central Administration
B. Psconfig
C. Internet Information Services (IIS) Manager
D. Stsadm
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are managing a site collection in a SharePoint farm. You need to configure the minimum level of permissions necessary for users to manage lists in the site collection. 70-331 dumps
What permission level should you configure?
A. Contribute
B. Read
C. Full Control
D. Design
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A company has two SharePoint 2007 site collections that each store 200,000 unique documents. The average size of each document is 250 KB. There are two non-current versions for each document.
There are approximately 600,000 list items in addition to the documents.
The company plans to upgrade the farm to SharePoint 2013.
The new farm will use two SQL Server instances that are configured as an AlwaysOn availability group.
You use the following formula to estimate the size of the content database:
Database Size = ((D x V) x S) + (10 KB x (L + (V x D)))
You need to configure the storage for the content databases.
What is the minimum amount of storage space that you must allocate?
A. 101GB
B. 110 GB
C. 220 GB
D. 405 GB
E. 440 GB
Correct Answer: B
70-331 dumps
QUESTION 8
You deploy a SharePoint Server 2013 server farm.
You receive a custom display template.
You need to ensure that the custom display template is available in a site collection.
What should you use to upload the template?
A. The Master Page Gallery
B. Composed looks
C. Result types
D. Variations
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A company is planning to deploy My Sites to its 25,000 employees. The company will maintain dedicated content databases for the storage of personal site collections.
You need to create the minimum number of content databases required to support the My Sites.
What should you do?
A. Create three content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content database to 10,000.
B. Create one content database. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of the content database to 25,000.
C. Create one content database. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of the content database to 25,000.
D. Create three content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to 10,000.
E. Create five content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content database to 5,000.
F. Create five content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to 5,000.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You plan to deploy a SharePoint Server 2013 server farm to a test environment on a single server. 70-331 dumps The server has the following configurations:
A 64-bit processor that has four cores
Windows Server 2008 Enterprise
8 GB of physical memory
A 2-TB hard disk
You need to ensure that you can deploy the SharePoint Server 2013 farm to the server.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade the operating system.
B. Replace the processor.
C. Add more physical memory.
D. Add another hard disk drive.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You maintain a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package was developed by using SQL Server 2008 Business Intelligence Development Studio (BIDS).
The package includes custom scripts that must be upgraded.
You need to upgrade the package to SQL Server 2012.
Which tool should you use?
A. SSIS Upgrade Wizard in SQL Server 2008 BIDS
B. SSIS Upgrade Wizard in SQL Server Data Tools
C. SQL Server DTExecUI utility (dtexecui.exe)
D. SQL Server dtexec utility (dtexec.exe)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are developing a project that contains multiple SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages. The packages will be deployed to the SSIS catalog. One of the steps in each package accesses an FTP site to download sales transaction data. 70-463 pdf
You create project parameters to store the username and password that are used to access the FTP site.
You need to ensure that the username and password values are encrypted when they are deployed.
What should you do?
A. Set the Sensitive property of the parameters to True.
B. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package to EncryptSensitiveWithUserKey.
C. Change the parameters to package parameters.
D. Change the project to the Legacy Deployment model.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are developing a data flow transformation to merge two data sources. One source contains product data and the other source contains data about the country in which the product was manufactured. 70-463 dumps Both data sources contain a two-character CountryCode column and both use SQL Server. Both data sources contain an ORDER BY clause to sort the data by the CountryCode column in ascending order.
You use a Merge Join transformation to join the data.
70-463 dumps
You need to ensure that the Merge Join transformation works correctly without additional transformations.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Change the ORDER BY clause on the product source to order by ProductName.
B. Change the Merge Join transformation to a Merge transformation.
C. Set the appropriate SortKeyPosition properties on the data sources.
D. Set the IsSorted property on both data sources.
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 4
You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables. The first table contains sales per month and the second table contains orders per day.
Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively.
You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables.
What should you do?
A. Create a time mapping table.
B. Change the level of granularity in both fact tables to be the same.
C. Merge the fact tables.
D. Create a view on the sales table.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You develop and deploy a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package is stored in the file system.
You need to execute the package without importing it to the SSIS server.
What should you use to execute the package? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. catalog.start_package
B. dtexec
C. SQL Server Management Studio
D. SQL Server Agent
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 6
You are using a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that is stored in the SSIS catalog. 70-463 dumps An Environment has been defined in the SSIS catalog.
You need to add the Environment to the project.
Which stored procedure should you use?
A. catalog.set_environment_reference_type
B. catalog.set_environment_property
C. catalog.create_environment_reference
D. catalog.create_environment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. 70-463 pdf
You need to design a package to change a variable value during package execution by using the least amount of development effort.
What should you use?
A. Expression task
B. Script task
C. Execute SQL task
D. Execute Process task
E. Term Extraction transformation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are reviewing the design of a customer dimension table in an existing data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.
The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode.
You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode.
What should you do?
A. Add StartDate and EndDate columns to the customer dimension.
B. Add an IsCurrent column to the customer dimension.
C. Enable Snapshot Isolation on the data warehouse.
D. Add CurrentValue and PreviousValue columns to the customer dimension.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are designing a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure. The data warehouse currently includes the dimUser and dimDistrict dimension tables and the factSales fact table. The dimUser table contains records for each user permitted to run reports against the warehouse; and the dimDistrict table contains information about sales districts. 70-463 dumps
The system is accessed by users from certain districts, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate headquarters.
You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain districts. Some users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple districts.
What should you do?
A. Add a district column to the dimUser table.
B. Partition the factSales table on the district column.
C. Create a userDistrict table that contains primary key columns from the dimUser and dimDistrict tables.
D. For each district, create a view of the factSales table that includes a WHERE clause for the district.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, 300-115 dumps while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? 300-115 pdf (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they should. What is the reason for this?
A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. 300-115 dumps However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients. What must be done to fix this?
A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with “null” and then replace it with the new domain name.
B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?
A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber.
As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. 300-115 pdf After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?
A. macros
B. errdisable autorecovery
C. IP Event Dampening
D. command aliases
E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches.
What should be configured for extended VLANs?
A. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
B. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
C. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
D. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate” and “backup.” 300-115 dumps What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
Correct Answer: A

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